ENT204FBQ1: Entrepreneurship is derived from the French term................... which means to undertake, to pursue opportunities, to fulfil the needs and wants through innovation and starting businesses.
Answer: Entreprendre
FBQ2: One recent study found that _____ is a core antecedent of entrepreneurship.
Answer: Personality
FBQ3: The entrepreneur must have _____ in business before he/she will be successful
Answer: Interest
FBQ4: Because of the hurdles and obstacles that must be overcome, the entrepreneur must be consistently _____
Answer: Persistent
FBQ5: Many successful entrepreneurs succeeded only after they had __________ several times.
Answer: Failed
FBQ6: Entrepreneurs know that ___________ are merely opportunities in work clothes.
Answer: Difficulties
FBQ7: Entrepreneurs are _____ in their abilities and the business concept.
Answer: Confident
FBQ8: Will it be true to say that members of some ethno-cultural groups typically have a higher rate of business formation and ownership than do others? Yes or No.
Answer: Yes
FBQ9: Is a cultural factor a determinant for success in business? Yes or No
Answer: No
FBQ10: Entrepreneurship is an _____ concept.
Answer: Interdisciplinary
FBQ11: Theories pounded by various scholars include: psychological, sociological and. _____
Answer: Economic
FBQ12: The concept of entrepreneurship involves the consideration of a number of ____to enhance living standards and business profits.
Answer: Opportunities
FBQ13: The entrepreneur is expected to employ _______ planning to assess if the opportunities provided for growth are worthwhile and how they could be successfully exploited
Answer: Strategic
FBQ14: Strategic planning is an essential part of the concept of entrepreneurship and effective _______helps to ensure successful operation.
Answer: Application
FBQ15: Many companies that are started by entrepreneurs go out of business few years after their establishment. These companies often fail because of poor ____
Answer: Planning
FBQ16: They also may fail because the entrepreneur chooses the wrong business or does not have entrepreneurial. ______
Answer: Characteristics
FBQ17: An entrepreneur can be anyone who has a great ___________ that can ‘be turned into a business reality.
Answer: Idea
FBQ18: Entrepreneurs also are customers, or _________
Answer: Consumers
FBQ19: When thinking about starting a business. You can make a list of the things you like and dislike about similar companies or _____
Answer: Products
FBQ20: Successful entrepreneurs are ______. They want to make their own decisions. They also want to do something they enjoy.
Answer: Independent
FBQ21: ______ Is the idea for independence and the freedom to make decisions.
Answer: Autonomy
FBQ22: Entrepreneurship is not easy. The business may fail. The entrepreneur could lose his or her _______and possible more
Answer: Investment
FBQ23: There is no consensus concerning the definition of entrepreneur but most include a ________ to take risks in the pursuit of an opportunity.
Answer: Willingness
FBQ24: The life of an entrepreneur is one of_____, personal satisfaction, personal sacrifices, and stress.
Answer: Challenge
FBQ25: The concept of entrepreneurship is understood as a combination of creativity and _____.
Answer: Innovation
FBQ26: New venture creation is fraught with risk and financing of such ventures is referred to as risk._______
Answer: Capital
FBQ27: McClelland “ascribes the inculcation of the achievement motive to____ rearing practices which stress standard of excellence, maternal warmth, self-reliance training and a low father dominanceâ€. .
Answer: Child
FBQ28: McClelland (1961) revised his theory as a result of criticism and conceded that “it is the ideology and values that shape the modes of family _______ which in turn develop in entrepreneurial behaviour".
Answer: Socialization
FBQ29: Quality is an abstract construct used to measure services and products. True or False.
Answer: True
FBQ30: Entrepreneurs are seen as those with high need for achievement (N-arch), calculated risk takers as well as those with________ locus of control.
Answer: Internal
FBQ31: The accurate description of Weber’s paradigm might be the _______ and the spirit protestant ethic..
Answer: Development ethics
FBQ32: Max Weber argued that charismatic leader is constrained neither by _______ nor law and that his/her appeal is the very fact he/she undertakes to break the constraints imposed by established customs and roles in order to bring change.
Answer: Tradition
FBQ33: _______ conceded that in capitalist exchange economies, the influence or charismatic leadership is somewhat constrained as change is due to activities of enterprises and their pursuit of profit in the market..
Answer: Weber
FBQ34: According to Weber _______ become noted for their moralistic dedication to work and their willingness to deny immediate gratification in order to invest effort and wealth in the long term improvement of their worldly condition.
Answer: Calvinists
FBQ35: ____elaborated behaviouristic model explains that behavioural patterns are determined by reinforcing and aversive stimuli present in the societal context, such rewards and punishments not being limited to the child-rearing period entrepreneurial behaviour.
Answer: Kunkel
MCQ1: ................. is not among the mainstream factors of productions
Answer: Market
MCQ2: Richard Cantillon, a French economist, was credited with giving the concept of entrepreneurship a central role in................
Answer: Economy
MCQ3: A critical point in Cantillon’s argument was that entrepreneurs consciously make decisions about resource..................
Answer: Allocation
MCQ4: Adam Smith spoke of the word ................ in his 1776 Wealth of Nations as an individual who undertook the formation of an organization for commercial purposes.
Answer: Enterprise
MCQ5: Schumpeter described entrepreneurship as a force of....................
Answer: Creative destruction
MCQ6: Approaches to organisational effectiveness are the following except..........
Answer: Lost approach
MCQ7: According to Quinn (1980), the approach to strategic change is characterized a process of artfully blending ‘formal analysis, behavioural techniques and.........................
Answer: Power politics
MCQ8: A tactic commonly used when a company’s management feels the pressure of competitors using aggressive pricing is to reduce............ to the lowest possible levels.
Answer: Cost
MCQ9: Many entrepreneurs have tried to focus on profit maximisation. ................... is an instrument of sustained and enduring success in business ventures.
Answer: Team work
MCQ10: A .......................is a schematic representation of a process. The process chart was first introduced by Frank Gilbeth in 1921. He employed it to show a graphical and structured method of documenting process.
Answer: Flow chart
MCQ11: The word histogram is derived from............. word “histos anything set upright†(as the masts of ship); grammar, drawing, record and writing.
Answer: Greek
MCQ12: ...................are usual displays of data in which the right of the bars is used to show the relative size of the quality measured.
Answer: Bar charts
MCQ13: ....................can be used in conjunction with the cause and effect tool. It is a group technique used to generate a large number of ideas quickly and may be used in a variety of situations.
Answer: Brainstorming
MCQ14: Brainstorming can be used for the following except.................
Answer: Separating management
MCQ15: .....................is defined as the continual and collaborative discipline of measuring and comparing the results of key work process with those of the best performers in evaluating organizational performance.
Answer: Benchmarking
MCQ16: ................study performance about common and special causes of variation.
Answer: Control Charts
MCQ17: ..................Study trend and predict behavior.
Answer: Scatter Diagrams
MCQ18: Establishing quality improvement tools and.................. helps to create an attitude and maintain culture of quality.
Answer: Techniques
MCQ19: Using quality tools and techniques are necessary to achieve .......... satisfaction.
Answer: Customer
MCQ20: The..............of tools according to Andersen (2008).include, Difficulty in application of the tools, accuracy of the methodology.
Answer: Limitations
MCQ21: Quality improvement tools and techniques are central to continuous quality improvement in an...................
Answer: Organization
MCQ22: A business firm can perform effectively only through interactions with the broader .............environment on which it is part.
Answer: External
MCQ23: ...............change takes place within the context of the external competitive economic and social environment, and the organization’s internal resources, capabilities, culture, structure and systems.
Answer: Strategic
MCQ24: .......................relates to new systems, procedures, structures or technology which will have an immediate effect on working arrangements within the organization.
Answer: Operational change
MCQ25: The coming of technology has transformed the market place to .................
Answer: Market space
MCQ26: For many entrepreneurs the relationship with the customer is a .............one and that means the first to learn of changes in preferences that will affect the market.
Answer: Personal
MCQ27: Large companies spend considerable amounts of money and energy to learn from the...........................
Answer: Customer
MCQ28: The entrepreneurial spirit can also be rediscovered by keeping the.............. business and starting a second one.
Answer: Larger
MCQ29: As business grows, the skills required of the................... also changes.
Answer: Entrepreneur
MCQ30: An understanding of the nature of teams is vital if the entrepreneur is to influence the ............of people in the work situation
Answer: Behaviour
MCQ31: ............. advanced the theory of protestant ethic and the spirit of capitalism.
Answer: Weber
MCQ32: The entrepreneur in this ever-changing business environment must be aware of the impact of teams and their effects on firm...................
Answer: Performance
MCQ33: .Team is an.................. of sustained and enduring success in business ventures.
Answer: Instrument
MCQ34: Work team offers the potential and prospect for positive............ and development in the area of entrepreneurial development..
Answer: Growth
MCQ35: Now, as more knowledgeable employees get employed in government agencies on both moral and intellectual grounds, it becomes expedient for more people to have a say in....................
Answer: Management
NSC202
Question MCQ1 : The primary tastes in humans include all of the following except
Answer: None of the options
Question MCQ2 : The largest number of taste buds are found in which papillae?
Answer: Circumvallate
Question MCQ3 : Adult humans have a maximum of about how many taste buds?
Answer: 10000
Question MCQ4 : Taste buds consists of the following cells except
Answer: Papillae
Question MCQ5 : Concerning human smell sensation, which of the following statement is false?
Answer: Highly developed in humans compared to lower animals
Question MCQ6 : Which type of neurons within the olfactory epithelium
Answer: Bipolar
Question MCQ7 : Influx of ions into olfactory hairs is triggered by the activation of
Answer: G-protein
Question MCQ8 : Olfactory nerves are formed by
Answer: Axons of olfactory neurons
Question MCQ9 : Apart from olfactory cortex, olfactory tracts terminate in what other region of the
brain
Answer: Amygdala
Question MCQ10 : Which of these statements is true concerning olfactory mucus?
Answer: All of the options
Question MCQ11 : The external ear is separated from the middle ear by
Answer: Tympanic membrane
Question MCQ12 : The part of external ear outside the head is called
Answer: Auricle
Question MCQ13 : The auditory ossicles are
Answer: malleus, incus, and stapes
Question MCQ14 : The muscles of the middle ear are
Answer: Tensor tympani and stapedius
Question MCQ15 : The stapedius muscle is innervated by which nerve?
Answer: Facial
Question MCQ16 : The tube opening into the pharynx from the middle ear is called
Answer: All of the options
Question MCQ17 : The regions of the bony labyrinth include all of the following except
Answer: Tympani
Question MCQ18 : Which of the fluids in the inner ear is similar to cerebrospinal fluid?
Answer: Perilymph
Question MCQ19 : The structure of cochlea gives a resemblance to
Answer: Snail
Question MCQ20 : Which part of cranial nerve VIII is responsible for balancing?
Answer: Vestibular
Question MCQ21 : Arrange the layers of the eye from superficial to deep
Answer: Fibrous layer, vascular layer, retina
Question MCQ22 : The bony labyrinth is filled with which fluid?
Answer: Perilymph
Question MCQ23 : The embryonic beginning of the brain and spinal cord is the neural
Answer: Tube
Question MCQ24 : One of these houses the spiral organ
Answer: Cochlear duct
Question MCQ25 : The initial 3 brain vesicles formed at 4th week include all except
Answer: Metencephalon
Question MCQ26 : Connective tissue fibres found in the sclera are
Answer: Collagen and elastic
Question MCQ27 : The part of embryonic brain that forms the cerebral cortex is
Answer: Telencephalon
Question MCQ28 : Concerning the aqueous humour, which is true
Answer: Keeps the eyeball inflated
Question MCQ29 : The inner surface of cornea is covered by
Answer: Simple squamous epithelium
Question MCQ30 : Spinal bifida is a failure of closure of the
Answer: Neural tube
Question MCQ31 : The Rhombencephalon give rise to which of these regions
Answer: Medulla
Question MCQ32 : Orbicularis oculi is responsible for
Answer: Closing eyes
Question MCQ33 : Concerning the lens, which of these is false
Answer: It is transparent
Question MCQ34 : The most obvious features of the cerebrum are
Answer: Gyri and Sulci
Question MCQ35 : The pituitary gland is divided into how many lobes
Answer: 2
Question MCQ36 : The 3 main sulci dividing the brain into lobes include all except
Answer: Medial
Question MCQ37 : The two hemispheres of the brain are connected by
Answer: Corpus callosum
Question MCQ38 : Which type of epithelia lines the follicles of the thyroid gland
Answer: Simple cuboidal
Question MCQ39 : The bone which houses the pituitary glanda.b.c.d.
Answer: Sphenoid bone
Question MCQ40 : Histologically, the cerebral cortex is arranged in how many layers
Answer: 6
Question MCQ41 : The pituitary gland is connected to the what part of the brain?
Answer: Hypothalamus
Question MCQ42 : The brain stem in humans include the following except.
Answer: Cerebellum
Question MCQ43 : Which of this part of the midbrain is particularly implicated in Parkinson’s
disease?
Answer: Substantia nigra
Question MCQ44 : Which brain ventricles is housed within the cerebral hemispheres?
Answer: Lateral
Question MCQ45 : The lateral ventricles in the cerebrum are connected to the third ventricle in the
diencephalon by
Answer: Interventricular foramina
Question MCQ46 : Approximately 80% of the hormone released from the adrenal medulla is
Answer: Adrenaline
Question MCQ47 : One of these is not a layer of the adrenal cortex
Answer: Zona basale
Question MCQ48 : Which of these does not partake in the cerebral arterial circle of Willis?
Answer: Basilar artery
Question MCQ49 : Photoreceptors are mostly concentrated in what part of the retina
Answer: Fovea
Question MCQ50 : A defect in which the cornea or lens is not uniformly curved and the image is not
sharply focused is called
Answer: Astigmatism
Question FBQ51 : Taste is mainly a function of the taste _____ in the mouth.
Answer: Buds
Question FBQ52 : Substances called _____ dissolve in saliva, enter the taste pores, and by various
mechanisms cause the taste cells to depolarize.
Answer: Tastants
Question FBQ53 : Many of the sensations thought of as being taste are strongly influenced by _____
sensations
Answer: Olfactory
Question FBQ54 : Beyond the age of _____ years, many taste buds degenerate, causing taste sensitivity
to decrease in old age
Answer: 45
Question FBQ55 : Each taste cell has several microvilli, called _____.
Answer: Taste hairs
Question FBQ56 : Airborne odorants become dissolved in the mucus on the surface of the epithelium
and bind to molecules on the membranes of the olfactory hairs called olfactory Â-Â-_____.
Answer: Receptors
Question FBQ57 : The olfactory cortex is part of the _____, projecting to the hypothalamus, amygdala,
and hippocampus of the cerebrum
Answer: Limbic system
Question FBQ58 : _____ is partial loss of smell or decreased sensation of smell.
Answer: Hyposmia
Question FBQ59 : The membranous labyrinth is filled with a clear fluid called _____
Answer: Endolymph
Question FBQ60 : In the inner ear, the hair cells consist of numerous microvilli, called stereocilia, and
one cilium, called a _____.
Answer: Kinocilium
Question FBQ61 : The eye consists of the eyeball, or globe of the eye, and the ____ nerve.
Answer: Optic
Question FBQ62 : The _____ is avascular and transparent, permitting light to enter the eye
Answer: Cornea
Question FBQ63 : The iris regulates the amount of light by controlling the size of the _____.
Answer: Pupil
Question FBQ64 : The sphincter papillae are innervated by _____ fibers from the oculomotor nerve (III).
Answer: Parasympathetic
Question FBQ65 : _____ is an abnormal increase in intraocular pressure that results when the rate of
production of aqueous humor exceeds its rate of removal
Answer: Glaucoma
Question FBQ66 : The _____ ligaments connect the lens capsule to the ciliary body
Answer: Suspensory
Question FBQ67 : The lens is part of the _____ system of the eye.
Answer: Focusing
Question FBQ68 : The most common type of gigantism, pituitary gigantism, results from excess
secretion of _____.
Answer: Growth hormone
Question FBQ69 : The parathyroid glands are usually embedded in the _____ part of each lobe of the
thyroid gland.
Answer: Posterior
Question FBQ70 : A spinal _____ is the removal of CSF from the subarachnoid space.
Answer: Tap
Question FBQ71 : The_____ is in overall control of the autonomic nervous system.
Answer: Hypothalamus
Question FBQ72 : _____ (stretch receptors) in the walls of large arteries near the heart detect changes
in blood pressure
Answer: Baroreceptors
Question FBQ73 : Cholinergic receptors are receptors to which _____ binds
Answer: Acetylcholine
Question FBQ74 : the parasympathetic division of the ANS is sometimes called the _____ division
Answer: Craniosacral
Question FBQ75 : Damage to the median nerve occurs most commonly where it enters the wrist
through the _____
Answer: Carpal tunnel
Question FBQ76 : The term funny bone or crazy bone is associated with the _____ nerve
Answer: Ulnar
Question FBQ77 : Wrist drop is major due to a damage to the _____ nerve
Answer: Radial
Question FBQ78 : The largest peripheral nerve in the human body is the _____ nerve
Answer: Sciatic
Question FBQ79 : The phrenic nerve is involved in breathing due to its innervation of the _____
Answer: Diaphragm
Question FBQ80 : The brachial plexus originates from spinal nerves C5 to _____.
Answer: T1
Question FBQ81 : A _____ is the area of skin supplied with sensory innervation by a pair of spinal
nerves.
Answer: Dermatome
Question FBQ82 : The nerve supply to the upper limbs originate from _____ plexus
Answer: Brachial
Question FBQ83 : There are _____ pairs of spinal nerve
Answer: 31
Question FBQ84 : The trigeminal nerve (V) has three branches; ophthalmic, _____, and mandibular
Answer: Maxillary
Question FBQ85 : The main blood supply to the CNS include the _____, vertebral and basilar systems of
arteries
Answer: Internal carotid
Question FBQ86 : ______ is a condition that results from partial or complete block of ventricles of the
brain
Answer: Hydrocephalus
Question FBQ87 : The neuroepithelial cells lining the neural tube are of simple _____ type
Answer: Columnar
Question FBQ88 : ____ is the caudal portion of the rhombencephalon
Answer: Myelencephalon
Question FBQ89 : During brain development, nerves of the branchial arches become the _____ nerves
Answer: Cranial
Question FBQ90 : The thymus produces _____, which is involved in the development of the immune
system
Answer: Thymosin
Question FBQ91 : The kidneys secrete a hormone in response to reduced oxygen levels in the kidney.
The hormone is called _____.
Answer: Erythropoietin
Question FBQ92 : _____ is sometimes called the “hormone of darkness†because its production
increases in the dark
Answer: Melatonin
Question FBQ93 : The exocrine gland of the pancreas secretes _____ enzymes
Answer: Digestive
Question FBQ94 : _____ is a chronic enlargement of the thyroid gland not due to a tumor
Answer: Goitre
Question FBQ95 : Lack of _____ in the diet can result in decreased thyroid hormone levels
Answer: Iodine
Question FBQ96 : The posterior lobe of pituitary gland is also called _____.
Answer: Neurohypophysis
Question FBQ97 : In the retina, _____ cells in the inner plexiform layer synapse with bipolar and
ganglion cells
Answer: Amacrine
Question FBQ98 : The _____ are moveable folds covering the anterior surface of the eye when closed
Answer: Eyelids
Question FBQ99 : The organs of hearing and balance are divided into three parts: the external, _____,
and inner ear
Answer: Middle
Question FBQ100 : _____, is a complete loss of smell.
Answer: Anosmia
NSC206FBQ1: Insects or other arthropods that carry disease-causing microorganisms are referred to as _______
Answer: Vectors
FBQ2: _______________ is renewable water source.
Answer: Fresh water
FBQ3: The Nuclear power accident that occurred in Fukushima (Japan) took place in___________
Answer: 2011
FBQ4: According to the World Health Organization, __________talks about human health that includes quality of life that are determined by interactions with physical, biological and social factors in the environment
Answer: Environmental health
FBQ5: The 2002 World Health Report indicated that __________% of global disease burden is due to inadequate water and sanitation.
Answer: 5.5
FBQ6: In most African cities, between 50 to ----% of the population live in grossly inadequate housing conditions
Answer: 75
FBQ7: The food borne pathogens campylobacter jejuni usually cause disease known as_________
Answer: Vibrionic enteritis
FBQ8: Size-building should occupy a maximum of _________% of the plot size for high density area.
Answer: 50
FBQ9: The food borne pathogens Listeria moncytogene usually cause disease known as_________
Answer: Listeriosis
FBQ10: The disease Shigellosis is caused by pathogenic bacteria known as___________
Answer: Shigella
FBQ11: The ozone layer protects the earth from excessive_____________ radiation
Answer: Ultraviolet
FBQ12: The largest portion of atmospheric gases by weight is_____________
Answer: Nitrogen
FBQ13: _________ cleanses itself of some air pollutants in a few hours or days
Answer: Troposphere
FBQ14: Safe water should be located within a distance of ____________metres from the household residence.
Answer: 100
FBQ15: Water is usually disinfected by using_______________
Answer: Chlorine
FBQ16: The Clean Air Act Amendments of _______ gave the Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) the authority to establish and enforce air pollution standards.
Answer: 1970
FBQ17: A UN Conference on Climate Change was held in_______, in 1997
Answer: Kyoto
FBQ18: On sanitation, Nigeria is________ highest in hierarchy in Open Defecation practice.
Answer: 5th
FBQ19: The insecticide DDT was first discovered in_________.
Answer: 1940
FBQ20: The vector for loasis disease is the ____________.
Answer: Chrysops
FBQ21: The Culex sp. mosquitoes are responsible for the spread of_________
Answer: Lymphatic filariasis
FBQ22: World Health Organization in the year_________ classified waste substances as comprising of solid waste, liquid waste and, gaseous waste
Answer: 1990
FBQ23: ______________include refuse from households, non-hazardous solid waste from industrial, commercial and institutional establishments (including hospitals), market waste, yard waste, and street sweepings.
Answer: Municipal solid waste
FBQ24: Plague disease is transmitted by__________
Answer: Flea
FBQ25: __________can be defined as useless, unwanted or discarded materials that arise from mans’ activities.
Answer: Solid waste
FBQ26: Mites belong to the order _________.
Answer: Arachnida
FBQ27: In addition to spreading epidemic typhus, Tick also causes _________.
Answer: relapsing fever
FBQ28: Cyclops belongs to the order _________.
Answer: Crustacea
FBQ29: Malaria disease is transmitted by__________
Answer: Anopheles mosquito
FBQ30: Yellow fever disease is transmitted by____________
Answer: Aedes mosquito
FBQ31: Trypanosomiasis disease is transmitted by_____________
Answer: Glossina
FBQ32: Leishmaniasis disease is transmitted by_____________________
Answer: Phlebotomus
FBQ33: The vector for scabies disease is the ____________.
Answer: Mite
FBQ34: The vector for Enteric infections is the ____________.
Answer: Housefly
FBQ35: The Environmental ____________Agency has classified Environmental tobacco smoke (ETS) as a Class A carcinogen.
Answer: Protection
MCQ1: Â Insects or other arthropods that carry disease-causing microorganisms are referred to as
Answer: vectors
MCQ2: Â Which of the following is renewable water source?
Answer: Fresh water
MCQ3: Water shortages can lead to:
Answer: Poverty and soil degradation.
MCQ4: Which of the following is not a source of energy?
Answer: Water vapour
MCQ5: Nuclear Power can cause damage to the environment because
Answer: High-level radioactive waste
MCQ6: The Nuclear power accident that occurred in Fukushima (Japan) took place in
Answer: March 2011
MCQ7: Which of the following is TRUE regarding biological hazards?
Answer: Living organisms or their products that are harmful to humans
MCQ8: According to the World Health Organization, __________talks about human health that includes quality of life that are determined by interactions with physical, biological and social factors in the environment
Answer: Environmental health
MCQ9: The control of factors in the environment that exercises, or may exercise harmful effect on the physical development, health and survival of humans is:
Answer: Environmental sanitation
MCQ10: The 2002 World Health Report indicated that __________of global disease burden is due to inadequate water and sanitation.
Answer: 5.5%
MCQ11: One of the principles of healthy housing which is protection against communicable diseases can be achieved through the following except:
Answer: Sanitizing lotions only
MCQ12: In most African cities, between _____________ of the population live in grossly inadequate housing conditions.
Answer: 50-75%
MCQ13: _________ often consumes the largest portion of the freshwater supply.
Answer: agriculture
MCQ14: Which of the following are types of pollutants found in groundwater?
Answer: all of the options
MCQ15: Which of the following inorganic compounds is NOT of particular health concern in the water system?Â
Answer: Iron
MCQ16: The main steps of water treatment include which of the following?
Answer: All of the options
MCQ17: Which of the following is NOT normally used for water disinfection?
Answer: evaporation
MCQ18: Primary treatment of wastewater is largely a _________ process.
Answer: mechanical
MCQ19: Which of the following is not a primary pollutant?
Answer: ozone
MCQ20: Particulates may cause which of the following health hazards to humans:
Answer: respiratory distress
MCQ21: _____ may be the primary health problem when a person's bronchial tubes respond to allergens, pollution, etc. resulting in hyperactive airways.
Answer: asthma
MCQ22: Which is a potential source of indoor air pollution?
Answer: all of the options
MCQ23: Biological contaminants are most likely aggravated by what problem?
Answer: moisture
MCQ24: Which of the following is a practice used to reduce and manage MSW?
Answer: all of the options
MCQ25: Which of the following is not a method for the disposal of hazardous wastes?
Answer: ISV
MCQ26: Secure landfills require all but one of the following:
Answer: single liners
MCQ27: One of the most effective forms of hazardous waste disposal may be:
Answer: incineration
MCQ28: What is the most common form of waste management in the Nigeria today?
Answer: combustion
MCQ29: Landfills have historically been sources of all but one of the following:
Answer: producers of propane gas
MCQ30: Whenever a person uses his/her property to cause material injury or annoyance to a neighbor, these actions constitute a ________________?
Answer: Nuisance
MCQ31: Which of the following chemicals is most associated with systemic disease involving the central nervous system, the gastrointestinal system and the blood forming tissues?
Answer: lead
MCQ32: How many homologous pairs of chromosomes are there in human nucleus?
Answer: 23
MCQ33: Which of the following sites in the respiratory system is the most likely place for the carbon dioxide and oxygen to exchange in the blood?
Answer: alveoli
MCQ34: What is the major organ responsible for detoxification in the body?
Answer: liver
MCQ35: Which kind of cells are the primary targets of the AIDS virus?
Answer: helper T-cells (eg. CD4)
NSC210MCQ1: The idea of applying the scientific method to the social world is known as --------
Answer: Auguste Comte
MCQ2: From the Greek word, “LOGOS†means -------------
Answer: Study on
MCQ3: From the Latin word, “SOCIUS†means ----------
Answer: Being with another
MCQ4: Herbert Spencer (1820-1903) is sometimes called ----------
Answer: The 1st founder of sociology
MCQ5: Societies evolve from lower means ----------------
Answer: Barbarian
MCQ6: Societies evolve to higher means -------------
Answer: Barbarian
MCQ7: Who view the evolution of societies as social Darwinism?
Answer: Karl Marx
MCQ8: Who got sociology recognized as a separate academic discipline?
Answer: Spencer
MCQ9: One of the most influential sociologists is -------------
Answer: Weber
MCQ10: Who is the pioneer of sociology?
Answer: Karl Marx
MCQ11: The word sociology is a combination of -----------
Answer: Latin only
MCQ12: The word “LOGY†means ------------
Answer: Study of life
MCQ13: The word “SOCIO†means ----------
Answer: Society
MCQ14: When did Auguste Comte coin the term “Sociology�
Answer: 1898-1957
MCQ15: Who summed up in his famous phrase: “To know, To Predict and to control†---------
Answer: Karl Marx
MCQ16: How many approaches are involved in mapping out the subject matter of sociology?
Answer: Five
MCQ17: All are the founding fathers of sociology EXCEPT -----------------
Answer: Auguste Comte and Positivism
MCQ18: Who urged sociologists to get back to social reform in 1956 ----------------
Answer: C. Wright Mills
MCQ19: How many major orthodox view of the goals and tactics of the natural sciences -------
Answer: Four
MCQ20: How many generalization are in social science in general and sociology in particular?
Answer: Seven
MCQ21: Social sciences as natural sciences have how many important reasons --------
Answer: Five
MCQ22: How many views offered by scientific explanation -------------
Answer: Six
MCQ23: Identify the third level of analysis in sociology -----------
Answer: The group level
MCQ24: Social interaction has how many zones --------------
Answer: Two
MCQ25: How many forms of accommodation do we have as an adjustment in social processes?
Answer: Eight
MCQ26: How many types of social movements do we have?
Answer: Four
MCQ27: How many stages are in the development of social movements?
Answer: Five
MCQ28: All are levels of social organization EXCEPT ----------
Answer: Interpersonal relationship
MCQ29: Which level are sociologists particularly concerned with in social organization ---------
Answer: First level
MCQ30: Which of the levels in social organization has to do with father to son, teacher to student?
Answer: Fourth level
MCQ31: The fundamental elements of social organization are ---------
Answer: Norms
MCQ32: Statuses that are not attained through any individual effort or merit are called -------
Answer: Ascribed status
MCQ33: Statuses that attained through individual effort are called --------
Answer: Ascribed status
MCQ34: Ascribed statuses are involuntary and depend on -----------
Answer: Age
MCQ35: The statuses of husband and wife are example of ---------------
Answer: Ascribed status
MCQ36: A role that often follows a change of status is called ---------------
Answer: Role performance
MCQ37: Sociological classification of groups are -------------
Answer: Eight groups
MCQ38: The group that members engage in intimate interaction and cooperation is -------
Answer: In-group
MCQ39: Relatively small group size is a characteristics of which group ---------------
Answer: Primary group
MCQ40: The group that tend to be large and to exist for a short period of time is ----------
Answer: Voluntary group
MCQ41: The group that has formal interaction is ----------------
Answer: Primary group
MCQ42: The group that members have feelings of “weâ€, “usâ€, “our†is -----------
Answer: Voluntary group
MCQ43: A group that an individual aspires to belong and pattern his behavior is --------
Answer: Reference group
MCQ44: A formal or informal organization to which an individual belongs is ----------
Answer: Reference group
MCQ45: Where an individual cannot choose the family, state, town to which there were born is -------------
Answer: Voluntary group
MCQ46: Groups to which individuals freely join are called ---------
Answer: Reference groups
MCQ47: A sanction that expresses approval for following a norm is ---------
Answer: Negative sanction
MCQ48: A sanction that reflects disapproval from breaking a norm is -----------
Answer: Positive sanction
MCQ49: Monetary reward is an example of what sanction ------------
Answer: Non-positive
MCQ50: A fine is an example of what type of sanction --------------
Answer: Negative
Fill in the Blank (FBQs):
FBQ1: The term “sanction†refer to positive and negative reactions. True or False
Answer: *True*
FBQ2: A positive sanction expresses approval for following a norm. True or False
Answer: *True*
FBQ3: A negative sanction reflects disapproval from breaking a normal. True or False
Answer: *True*
FBQ4: Norms that are not strictly enforced are called ----------
Answer: *Folkways*
FBQ5: Men’s folkways may be women’s mores. True or False
Answer: *True*
FBQ6: When people speak of culture they usually think of the --------------
Answer: *Higher things in life*
FBQ7: Sociologists call many phenomena as---------
Answer: *Culture*
FBQ8: The simplest definition of culture was stated by ------------
Answer: *Ralph Linton (1893-1953)*
FBQ9: Culture is the way of life of any
Answer: *Society*
FBQ10: The complex whole consisting of everything we think, do and have in ------------
Answer: *Social life*
FBQ11: Culture is created by ---------------
Answer: *Human beings*
FBQ12: Human beings make their historic way from ------------- to information
Answer: *Stone age*
FBQ13: To solve the problems presented by nature, human beings created such ----------
Answer: *Culture trait as dikes*
FBQ14: Material cultures include all -----------
Answer: *artifacts*
FBQ15: Invention therefore is the ultimate source of all ------------
Answer: *Culture trait*
FBQ16: Most times, inventions owe their origin to -------------
Answer: *Mistake*
FBQ17: More often inventions are produced by ------------
Answer: *Creative thinker*
FBQ18: The process whereby men acquire new factual knowledge about empirical reality is -------
Answer: *Discovery*
FBQ19: Discovery furnishes the information which inventors need to achieve
Answer: *New combination*
FBQ20: Not all discoveries have led to -----------
Answer: *Invention*
FBQ21: All inventions have their beginning in
Answer: *Discoveries*
FBQ22: Institutions combine a ------------
Answer: *Concept*
FBQ23: One way to understand social institution is to see how they fulfil ------------
Answer: *Essential function*
FBQ24: Sociologists have identified five major tasks a society must accomplish if it to survive. True or False
Answer: *True*
FBQ25: Each society establishes a set of rules for allocation of financial and other resources. True or False
Answer: *True*
FBQ26: Preserving order and protecting itself from attack is a basic need of each society. True or False
Answer: *True*
FBQ27: People must not fell motivated to continue as members of a group or society. True or False
Answer: *False*
FBQ28: Patriotism does not assists people in developing and maintaining a sense of purpose. True or False
Answer: *False*
FBQ29: Tribal identities or personal moral codes are especially meaningful as -----------
Answer: *Motivator*
FBQ30: Conflict theorists do not agree with the functioning approach to social institutions. True or False
Answer: *True*
FBQ31: Every society organizes its population to work. True or False
Answer: *True*
FBQ32: Every society does not develop a governing system of power and authority. True or False
Answer: *False*
FBQ33: Institutions provide the cement that holds society together. True or False
Answer: *True*
FBQ34: Institutions tend to maintain stability and -------------
Answer: *Status Quo*
FBQ35: Institutions which develop through rational invention and intention are ---------
Answer: *Enacted institution*
FBQ36: Obviously, forms of marriage are different in different societies. True or False
Answer: *True*
FBQ37: The purpose of marriage is not the same. True or False
Answer: *False*
FBQ38: Monogamy is the union of one man with one women. True or False
Answer: *True*
FBQ39: Polygamy is not plural marriage. True or False
Answer: *False*
FBQ40: Polyandry, the union of one man with several women. True or False
Answer: *False*
FBQ41: Polygyny, the union of one woman with several men. True or False
Answer: *False*
FBQ42: Group marriage, involving several men with several women. True or False
Answer: *True*
FBQ43: Families in which authority is vested in the oldest living males are called ---------
Answer: *Patriarchal*
FBQ44: In patriarchal families the father holds great power over wife and children. True or False
Answer: *True*
FBQ45: In matriarchal families, the source of authority is the mother. True or False
Answer: *True*
FBQ46: In neolocal arrangements, the married couple lives away from bothsets of parents. True or False
Answer: *True*
FBQ47: The need for affection and companionship appear to be a fundamental human need. True or False
Answer: *True*
FBQ48: A system of beliefs and ritual dealing with the sacred is ---------------
Answer: *Religion*
FBQ49: In a small organization the upper limit is about -------------- numbers
Answer: *30*
FBQ50: In a large organization, the upper limit is about ------ members
Answer: 50,000
CSS133
FBQ1: The violence experienced in ------------ and ------------made Africa a true reflection of Hobbesian state of nature.
Answer: *Rwanda and Burundi*
FBQ2: The intervention of Nigeria in the resolution of the armed conflicts in Liberian and Sierra-Leonean could be explained by the __________ security ideology.
Answer: *social constructivism*
FBQ3: A leading NGO which has been championing the need to energize political processes aimed at preventing or solving conflicts and promoting peace and development is ___________
Answer: *Human Security Network*
FBQ4: ______ is the most effective approach to security management because it allows people to deliberate and decide their own security matters
Answer: *Human security*
FBQ5: _____ is the concept of attaining a secure computing environment by mitigating the vulnerabilities associated
Answer: *Computer security*
FBQ6: ____ can save the nation of the carefree attitude of many public servants, official corruption and absence of security consciousness that characterize the nation’s bureaucracy.
Answer: *computer security*
FBQ7: The introduction of _______has rendered the traditional means of storing information like paper files moribund as they have gradually been replaced by computers.
Answer: *Information Communication Technology*
FBQ8: _______ is used to detect, prevent and destroy any malware like computer viruses, worms as well as trojan horses.
Answer: *Anti-virus software*
FBQ9: ______ involves a technique in which we create password to restrict access to one’s computer.
Answer: *Authentication*
FBQ10: The possibility of a university that has been existing for more than four decades to lose all academic records to fire outbreak emphasizes the importance of ____ ().
Answer: *Backups*
FBQ11: _____ enables us to verify the authenticity of any software loaded on the system, through which we can identify the software certified authentic by the system’s designer.
Answer: *Chain of Trust*
FBQ12: ______techniques are applied basically to reduce the risk of interception or modification of data whenever data are being exchanged between two or more systems.
Answer: *Cryptographic*
FBQ13: ____ is the design artifacts that explain the state of existing security controls or security countermeasures, showing how they relay with the general information technology architecture.
Answer: *security architecture*
FBQ14: ______goes beyond the use of computer to create, modify, delete or store information, hence, its boundary is beyond electronic medium.
Answer: *information security*
FBQ15: The increasing complexity of the modern state and sophisticated nature of contemporary business environment and corporations underscore the importance of ___
Answer: *computer security*
FBQ16: _____ means the continual activities that make sure the protection mechanisms are continually maintained and operational.
Answer: *Due Diligence*
FBQ17: ____ is the measures used to provide physical protection of resources against deliberate and accidental threats.
Answer: *Physical security*
FBQ18: ____can be described as that aspect of security designed purposely to provide protection for specific infrastructure particularly those considered critical.
Answer: *Infrastructure security*
FBQ19: ______ refers to the defence, law and treaty enforcement, and counterterrorism activities that fall within the port and maritime domain
Answer: *seaport security*
FBQ20: The level of sophistication of weapons used in armed robbery operations and banditry in Nigeria in recent times underscores the need to secure ____
Answer: *Seaports*
FBQ21: ÂÂÂÂÂ_------ is the reliable availability of a sufficient quantity and quality of nutritious food for a population
Answer: *Food security*
FBQ22: ___ is the act of imitating the behavior of some situation or some process by means of something suitably analogous (especially for the purpose of study).
Answer: *Simulation*
FBQ23: ____ is also known as “high fidelityâ€
Answer: *Live simulation*
FBQ24: ______often involves the use of computer simulation by the trainees in undergoing training.
Answer: *Virtual simulation*
FBQ25: ____ simulation affords health care providers an opportunity to examine their capacity to respond to emergency situations.
Answer: *Health care*
FBQ26: ------can be classified as historical, hypothetical, fantasy, or science fiction.
Answer: *War game*
FBQ27: According to Gordon (2000) ___ is anything that threatens the residents of a community or the things they value.
Answer: *Security threat*
FBQ28: _____is an unexpected and hazardous vibration resulting from the sudden shake of the Earth's crust.
Answer: *Earthquake*
FBQ29: ____ is the crime of seizing property through violence or intimidation.
Answer: *Robbery*
FBQ30: ____can be described to mean a deliberate act of destructively setting another person’s or oneself’s property on fire for specific motives.
Answer: *Arson*
FBQ31: ______is a form of security threat that can undermine the capacity of an individual to perform his/her duties effectively well.
Answer: *Badger Game*
FBQ32: ____a criminal offence, which occurs when a person unlawfully obtains either money, property or services from a person, entity, or institution, through coercion.
Answer: *Extortion*
FBQ33: ___usually involves an armed struggle or rebellion aimed to challenge the sovereign power of a constituted authority.
Answer: *Insurgency*
FBQ34: ___is a form of collective violence interfering with the peace, security, and normal functioning of the community.
Answer: *Civil disorder*
FBQ35: ____ can be described as struggles for control over information activities
Answer: *Information warfare*
FBQ36: ____ can be defined as the spread of small arms or weapons designed for use by individuals like pistols, assault rifles, sub-machine guns and light machine guns.
Answer: *Arms proliferation*
FBQ37: _____can also be defined as protracted state of violent, large-scale conflict involving two or more parties
Answer: *War*
FBQ38: _____ warfare is between two superpowers or powerful countries fighting for political goals.
Answer: *High intensity*
FBQ39: ____involves well-identified, armed confrontation between parties, for example, the Iraq war.
Answer: *Conventional war*
FBQ40: Guerrilla warfare is an example of ______
Answer: *Unconventional warfare*
FBQ41: _____ can be described as a method of weather modification in form of changing the type of precipitation that falls from the clouds, by dispersing substances into the air that serve as ice nuclei, which alter the microphysical processes within the cloud.
Answer: *Cloud seeding*
FBQ42: According to Dory 2003, ______is so crucial because it “provides an outlet for individual participation in and contribution to homeland securityâ€
Answer: *Civil security*
FBQ43: Despite the lack of consensus in the conceptual clarification of the term “Securityâ€, one common denominator among scholars is that security is about_____
Answer: *Safety of lives and property*
FBQ44: The school of thought that posits that international security can only be maintained through the use of coercion and deterrence is ___
Answer: *Realism*
FBQ45: The security ideology that promotes the idea of nations being their “brothers’ keepers†is __
Answer: *Social constructivism*
FBQ46: Community policing is a very good example of ____ security ideology
Answer: *Human security*
FBQ47: The extension of the scope of security to cover issues of disease, unemployment and hunger is related to ____ security ideology
Answer: *Human*
FBQ48: The traditional AK-47 coercion and deterrence approach which is largely state-centric is typified of ___ security ideology
Answer: *Realism*
FBQ49: The tendency towards a “paperless society†where most vital information and documentations are stored in soft format emphasizes the importance of ____
Answer: *Computer security*
FBQ50: Norton, AVG, Mcafee are all examples of ____
Answer: *Anti-virus software*
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs):
MCQ1: Despite the lack of consensus in the conceptual clarification of the term “Securityâ€, one common denominator among scholars is that security is about_____
Answer: Safety of lives and property
MCQ2: The post-cold war era has widened the scope of security to include the following except__
Answer: Civil wars
MCQ3: In the Westphalia epoch, the major threat to any country’s security came from___
Answer: External aggression
MCQ4: The paradigm shift from traditional to non-traditional security issues entails that security threats emanated from the following except__
Answer: Information warfare
MCQ5: The school of thought that posits that international security can only be maintained through the use of coercion and deterrence is ___
Answer: Idealism
MCQ6: Which of the following is NOT a security ideology?
Answer: Social constructivism
MCQ7: The security ideology that promotes the idea of nations being their “brothers’ keepers†is __
Answer: Realism
MCQ8: Inter-country collaboration in crime control as typified by Nigeria and Benin Republic led to the arrest of _______
Answer: Amani Tijani
MCQ9: The ideology that posits for a paradigm shift from monopoly to participatory definition of security is ____
Answer: Communalism
MCQ10: Community policing is a very good example of ____ security ideology
Answer: Realism
MCQ11: The concept of human security entails that security is extended to the following EXCEPT protection against___
Answer: Hunger
MCQ12: The traditional AK-47 coercion and deterrence approach which is largely state-centric is typified of ___ security ideology
Answer: Human security
MCQ13: The tendency towards a “paperless society†where most vital information and documentations are stored in soft format emphasizes the importance of ____
Answer: Border security
MCQ14: Which of the following statements underscores the need for security experts to be computer literate?
Answer: The society is moving to paperless transactions
MCQ15: ______advises that internet users not to give their vital information or to close any suspected sites and avoid copying anything from such sites
Answer: Anti-virus software
MCQ16: Which of the following is NOT an example of various types of anti-virus software in the market today?
Answer: Norton
MCQ17: What is the name given to criminals whotry to break into your system to steal, modify or delete some of the files or the whole information contained therein?
Answer: Robbers
MCQ18: Mention any two African countries whose experiences have emphasized the importance of security
Answer: Pupa New Guinea and Liberia
MCQ19: What is the tool used to prevent any strange or unintended person from comprehending the content of a message?
Answer: Coding
MCQ20: Which technique helps to protect your system against any malicious attack or illegal access by hackers and intruders whenever you are online.
Answer: Encryption
MCQ21: What is the process by which an organization protects and secures its systems, media, and facilities that process and maintain information vital to its operations?
Answer: Information security
MCQ22: What do you call a situation whereby confidential information gets into the wrong hands of unauthorized person(s) or system(s)?
Answer: Stealing
MCQ23: ________ determines the preparedness of an organization against any threat as it relates its information system
Answer: Preparation
MCQ24: Which of the following is NOT a classification label used in organisations?
Answer: Welcome
MCQ25: ____ security involves creating designs that deter malicious entry into a facility.
Answer: Intellectual
MCQ26: Which of the following is NOT an example of critical infrastructure to be well secured in Nigeria?
Answer: Dam
MCQ27: Which of the following does not serve as a threat to critical infrastructure in Nigeria?
Answer: Sabotage
MCQ28: During the 9/11 attacks in the USA, which infrastructure was penetrated by the terrorists?
Answer: Seaport
MCQ29: In Nigeria, the popular Koko waste disposal in Delta State is an example of ____ infrastructure violation.
Answer: Seaport
MCQ30: Which of the following is a fallout of inadequate infrastructure security in Nigeria?
Answer: Corruption
MCQ31: The level of sophistication of weapons used in armed robbery operations and banditry in Nigeria in recent times underscores the need to secure ____
Answer: Seaports
MCQ32: The airport security is very vital for national safety for the following reasons EXCEPT that it is the___
Answer: Fastest
MCQ33: Which of the following is NOT a means of securing the airport?
Answer: Screening of passengers
MCQ34: Which terrorist group claimed responsibility for the 9/11 attacks in the USA?
Answer: Boko Haram
MCQ35: Which of the following infrastructure in the USA was not a target of the 9/11 terrorists?
Answer: The Pentagon
MCQ36: Which of the following security agencies are not likely to be found at any airport in Nigeria?
Answer: Immigration
MCQ37: Which of the following airports has not experienced terrorist attack before?
Answer: Rome
MCQ38: When did the infamous terrorist attacks in the USA take place?
Answer: 11 September, 2010
MCQ39: Some of the technological innovations used in securing the airport include the following EXCEPT__
Answer: X-ray machines
MCQ40: ___ security involves safety against pandemics and diseases.
Answer: Food
MCQ41: The recent outbreak of ____ disease underscores the importance of health security at the airport and borders of the country.
Answer: Malaria
MCQ42: The provision of governments for vulnerable citizens such as those who are out of job whereby stipends are provided for them to keep body and soul together is called ___
Answer: Airport security
MCQ43: The total surrounding or external conditions within which an organism or a community exists is known as ____
Answer: Atmosphere
MCQ44: The process of putting the level of preparedness of security forces to test on how timely and effectively they can respond to any security threats is called ___
Answer: War
MCQ45: _______actually involves the use of real people using simulated tools in a simulated world.
Answer: Live simulation
MCQ46: ____ simulation is a process whereby simulated people use simulated tools in a simulated world.
Answer: Constructive
MCQ47: Examples of natural threats include the following EXCEPT____
Answer: Earthquakes
MCQ48: Another name for earthquake is _________
Answer: Earth tremor
MCQ49: _____ can be an example of both natural and man-made threats.
Answer: Robbery
MCQ50: Typhoons and Tropical cyclones are other names for ____
Answer: Fire
CIT102
FBQ1: Operating System is the most common type of -------------- software.
Answer: System
FBQ2: A kilobyte also referred to as KB, is equal to -------- bytes (write in numbers)
Answer: 1024
FBQ3: Another term for Main Memory is ---------------?
Answer: RAM
FBQ4: The file extension of MS-Word document of office 2010 is ---------?
Answer: ,docx
FBQ5: One MB is equal to -------- Bytes. (Hint: Write in figures)
Answer: 1024
FBQ6: Internet Explorer is a type of -------------?
Answer: Browser
FBQ7: A collection of 8 bits is called?
Answer: Byte
FBQ8: A list of instructions used by a computer is called --------------
Answer: Program
FBQ9: Memories which can be read only are called ------------
Answer: ROM
FBQ10: USB stands for?
Answer: Universal Serial Bus
FBQ11: ALU stands for?
Answer: Arithmetic Logic Unit
FBQ12: LAN stands for?
Answer: Local Area Network
FBQ13: A wireless technology built in electronic gadgets used for exchanging data over short distances is ---------------
Answer: Bluetooth
FBQ14: ---------- keys are present on the top row of the keyboard.
Answer: Function
FBQ15: ‘www’ stands for
Answer: World Wide Web
FBQ16: The ------- key in a computer will launch the start button?
Answer: Windows
FBQ17: When sending an e-mail, the -------- line describes the contents of the message.
Answer: Subject
FBQ18: What is the term used for unsolicited e-mail?
Answer: Spam
FBQ19: In the slide layout panel in PowerPoint, how many layouts are available for text layout by default?
Answer: 4
FBQ20: In PowerPoint, which menu can you use to access Picture, Text Box, Chart etc?
Answer: Insert
FBQ21: Software generations refer to the developmental stages of the programming languages. How many software generations are there?
Answer: 5
FBQ22: In order that you may use a PC, the first task you must perform is to switch on (or -----------) the PC.
Answer: Boot
FBQ23: Among the windows elements the ---------- displays the title of the relevant application.
Answer: Title bar
FBQ24: ------------- is a software application that provides an “electronic spreadsheet,” or worksheet environment.
Answer: Excel
FBQ25: Information presented in the form of a table, graph or diagram is known as -------
Answer: Chart
FBQ26: --------------- is an application program used to create presentations. Presentations are delivered to an audience using different media such as slides, overhead transparencies, and automated shows viewed on a computer or broadcast over the Web
Answer: PowerPoint
FBQ27: Graphic images called ----------- are supplied with PowerPoint
Answer: clip art
FBQ28: When two or more computers are interconnected this is generally referred to as a ------.
Answer: Network
FBQ29: ----------- are underlined or bordered words and graphics that have web addresses (also known as URL – Universal Resource Locator)
Answer: Hyperlinks
FBQ30: A -------------- is the starting point for a web site. It is something like the cover page or the Table of Contents of a book
Answer: home page
FBQ31: ________ is a café or bar allowing customers to explore the World Wide Web whilst having a drink or snack, usually charged per half-hour of usage.
Answer: Cybercafe
FBQ32: A distributed bulletin board system about a particular topic is usually referred to as _____
Answer: Newsgroup
FBQ33: In an electronic mail system, all incoming mail messages are stored in the ----------.
Answer: Inbox
FBQ34: A ------------ is a large expensive electronic machine with the capability of serving the needs of major business enterprises, government departments and scientific research establishments
Answer: Mainframe
FBQ35: The main circuit board of a computer is usually referred to as the ------------.
Answer: Motherboard
MCQ1: The basic architecture of computer was developed by
Answer: John Von Neumann
MCQ2: In order to tell Excel that we are entering a formula in a cell, we must begin with an operator such as
Answer: =
MCQ3: Fifth generation computers are based on
Answer: Artificial Intelligence
MCQ4: GUI stands for
Answer: Graphical User Interface
MCQ5: Any data or instruction entered into the memory of a computer is considered as
Answer: Input
MCQ6: Which one of the following is NOT an application software package?
Answer: Redhat Linux
MCQ7: Microsoft Word is an example of
Answer: Application software
MCQ8: Graphical pictures that represent an object like file, folder etc. are:
Answer: Icons
MCQ9: The 0 and 1 in the binary numbering system are called Binary Digits or
Answer: Bits
MCQ10: The processor which performs arithmetical and logical operation is called
Answer: ALU
MCQ11: Which was an early mainframe computer?
Answer: ENIAC
MCQ12: Which network protocol is used to send e-mail?
Answer: SMTP
MCQ13: RAM (Random Access Memory) chips
Answer: allow the computer to store data electronically
MCQ14: Super computers are mainly useful for
Answer: Mathematical intensive scientific applications
MCQ15: The operating system manages
Answer: All of the options
MCQ16: Which of the following items is not used in a Local Area Network (LAN)?
Answer: Modem
MCQ17: Computer Virus is a _____.
Answer: Software
MCQ18: A computer port is used to ?
Answer: Communicate with other computer peripherals
MCQ19: Dot-matrix, Deskjet, Inkjet and LaserJet are all types of which computer peripherals?
Answer: Printers
MCQ20: In a client/server model, a client program --------------------------.
Answer: Asks for information
MCQ21: Which of the following is an example of Operating System?
Answer: Microsoft Windows
MCQ22: General purpose computers are those that can be adopted to countless uses simply by changing its?
Answer: Program
MCQ23: The device primarily used to provide hardcopy is the ?
Answer: Printer
MCQ24: The process of putting data into a storage location is called ?
Answer: Writing
MCQ25: Which of the following is the product of data processing?
Answer: Information
MCQ26: Which one of the following is an output device?
Answer: Speaker
MCQ27: What language does a browser typically interpret to display information from the World Wide Web?
Answer: HTML
MCQ28: ------ is collection of web pages and ------ is the very first page that we see on opening of a web-stie
Answer: Web-site, Home-page
MCQ29: What menu is selected to cut, copy, and paste?
Answer: Edit
MCQ30: You can use the tab key to
Answer: Indent a paragraph
MCQ31: Which of the following is an example of connectivity?
Answer: Internet
MCQ32: Changing an existing document is called -------- the document
Answer: Editing
MCQ33: To move to the beginning of a line of text, press the --------- key?
Answer: Home
MCQ34: Office LANs that are spread geographically apart on a large scale can be connected using a corporate ?
Answer: WAN
MCQ35: In Power Point which tab is not available on the left panel when you open a presentation?
Answer: Notes
CSS112
MCQ1: According to functionalists, society is a self-contained system made of interconnected and _______________ parts
Answer: interrelated
MCQ2: ___________ theories proceed from the assumption that consensus exists in society
Answer: Consensus
MCQ3: In sociology, the two dominant views of law are the consensus/functionalist and the ______________ perspectives.
Answer: Conflict
MCQ4: Generally, the sociology of law is concerned with the nature of law, its sources and _____________
Answer: Functions
MCQ5: Sociology as an academic course of study emerged in the ____________ century
Answer: Mid-twentieth
MCQ6: In any successful military coup in Nigeria the first casualty is the ___________ which is immediately suspended
Answer: Constitution
MCQ7: The military struck on 15th January ____________ in a coup d’état
Answer: 1966
MCQ8: The 1960 independence constitution of Nigeria marked the beginning of-------------- rule
Answer: Civil
MCQ9: In colonial Nigeria the major sources of procedural laws were the ___________ for criminal procedure
Answer: Criminal Procedure Act
MCQ10: During the colonial period, the major source of law was the ------------ English law
Answer: received
MCQ11: The Northern and Southern Protectorates of Nigeria were amalgamated ------------------ into one political unit called Nigeria
Answer: 1914
MCQ12: In 1861 King Dosunmu of Lagos signed a document called the __________ thereby formally ceding Lagos to the British
Answer: Treaty of Cession
MCQ13: The personnel of the Shariah legal system in the North were learned ______scholars
Answer: Islamic
MCQ14: In pre-colonial Nigeria, the basic source of law in the Islamic part of the North was the Holy________
Answer: Koran(Qur’an)
MCQ15: British colonial adventure began in Nigeria in _________
Answer: 1861
MCQ16: The first and most seminal definition of law was given by __________ in 1915
Answer: A.V. Dicey
MCQ17: The assertion , “your right to swing your fist ends where my nose begins” was made popular by ______________
Answer: Lord Dennings
MCQ18: If everyone is allowed to do anything in the name of freedom, society may slide into the _________ state of nature where life is short, nasty and brutish.
Answer: Hobessian
MCQ19: ______________ freedom is liberty to do what one wants to do within the limits imposed by law
Answer: legal
MCQ20: The ability to do what one wishes to do without restraint is called ____________
Answer: Freedom
MCQ21: The requirements that one must hear the other side in a dispute and must not be a judge in his own case are fundamental principles of ________ justice
Answer: Natural
MCQ22: The element of force is absent in ___________ law
Answer: International
MCQ23: The idea that the state or the government is a product of an agreement between the governor and the governed best qualifies the _________ contract idea
Answer: Social
MCQ24: The force that is associated with law is that which is characterized by legitimacy and ____________
Answer: Authority
MCQ25: Dishonesty, living in sin, etc, are examples of ________________
Answer: immorality
MCQ26: The notion of what is right or wrong is known as ____________
Answer: Morality
MCQ27: The most dominant figure in the gafting of the sociological school is ___________
Answer: Roscoe Pound
MCQ28: The argument that law is not unique but only one method of social control is credited to the ____________school of jurisprudence
Answer: Sociological
MCQ29: _________________ is the founding father of the historical school of jurisprudence
Answer: Frederich Savigny
MCQ30: The assertion that law is not just an abstract set of rules but an integral part of society ws espoused by the ______________ school of jurisprudence
Answer: Historical
MCQ31: According to Jeremy Bentham, a critical understanding of law that investigation s are carried into _____________ areas of law
Answer: Eight
MCQ32: The school of jurisprudence which asserts that natural law was unscientific, and dominated by untested and untestable philosophical speculation is the ______________________ school.
Answer: Positivist
MCQ33: The postulation that what is natural is that which is common to all mankind was made by _____________
Answer: Aristotle
MCQ34: The major postulation of natural law theorists is that the good society is one in which laws____________ are harmonized with natural laws.
Answer: Man-made
MCQ35: In law, man-made laws are called ___________ laws
Answer: Positive
MCQ36: Another name for natural laws is ______________________
Answer: Higher or divine laws
MCQ37: Marxist theorist argue that the manner of ownership of production divides society into two antagonistic classes called the capitalists and the _______________
Answer: Working class
MCQ38: Another argument about law that what is needed in society is not law but education is credited to _________________
Answer: Plato
MCQ39: The title of Hobbes’s book published in 1961 is ______________
Answer: The Leviathan
MCQ40: According to ____________________ society without law is a very inevitable recipe for disaster
Answer: Thomas Hobbes
MCQ41: The assertion that man by nature is evil and the law is needed to keep his evil inclination in check was made by the _______________school of philosophy in China
Answer: “Legist”
MCQ42: Law performs ______________ functions
Answer: Six
MCQ43: ___________ laws prescribe procedures that must be followed in prosecuting offenders through the criminal justice system
Answer: Procedural
MCQ44: The staff strength of OSL company is
Answer: 3000 guards
MCQ45: The law governing conduct which is not punishable by the state is known as __________________ law
Answer: Civil
MCQ46: In law, those aspects of law dealing with offences that are punishable by the state fall under _____________ law
Answer: criminal
MCQ47: Law is classified into three major divisions: criminal and civil law; public and private law and ____________ and ______________
Answer: Substantive/procedural
MCQ48: The definition of law as a rule laid down for the guidance of an intelligent being by an intelligent being having power over him is credited to _________
Answer: John Austin
MCQ49: The word sociology is a hybrid one coined by the acclaimed father of sociology called_____________
Answer: Auguste Comte
MCQ50: The etymological meaning of sociology is derived from two words of Latin and Greek roots – Socius and _______________
Answer: Logus
MCQ1: According to functionalists, society is a self-contained system made of interconnected and _______________ parts
Answer: interrelated
MCQ2: ___________ theories proceed from the assumption that consensus exists in society
Answer: Consensus
MCQ3: In sociology, the two dominant views of law are the consensus/functionalist and the ______________ perspectives.
Answer: Conflict
MCQ4: Generally, the sociology of law is concerned with the nature of law, its sources and _____________
Answer: Functions
MCQ5: Sociology as an academic course of study emerged in the ____________ century
Answer: Mid-twentieth
MCQ6: In any successful military coup in Nigeria the first casualty is the ___________ which is immediately suspended
Answer: Constitution
MCQ7: The military struck on 15th January ____________ in a coup d’état
Answer: 1966
MCQ8: The 1960 independence constitution of Nigeria marked the beginning of-------------- rule
Answer: Civil
MCQ9: In colonial Nigeria the major sources of procedural laws were the ___________ for criminal procedure
Answer: Criminal Procedure Act
MCQ10: During the colonial period, the major source of law was the ------------ English law
Answer: received
MCQ11: The Northern and Southern Protectorates of Nigeria were amalgamated ------------------ into one political unit called Nigeria
Answer: 1914
MCQ12: In 1861 King Dosunmu of Lagos signed a document called the __________ thereby formally ceding Lagos to the British
Answer: Treaty of Cession
MCQ13: The personnel of the Shariah legal system in the North were learned ______scholars
Answer: Islamic
MCQ14: In pre-colonial Nigeria, the basic source of law in the Islamic part of the North was the Holy________
Answer: Koran(Qur’an)
MCQ15: British colonial adventure began in Nigeria in _________
Answer: 1861
MCQ16: The first and most seminal definition of law was given by __________ in 1915
Answer: A.V. Dicey
MCQ17: The assertion , “your right to swing your fist ends where my nose begins” was made popular by ______________
Answer: Lord Dennings
MCQ18: If everyone is allowed to do anything in the name of freedom, society may slide into the _________ state of nature where life is short, nasty and brutish.
Answer: Hobessian
MCQ19: ______________ freedom is liberty to do what one wants to do within the limits imposed by law
Answer: legal
MCQ20: The ability to do what one wishes to do without restraint is called ____________
Answer: Freedom
MCQ21: The requirements that one must hear the other side in a dispute and must not be a judge in his own case are fundamental principles of ________ justice
Answer: Natural
MCQ22: The element of force is absent in ___________ law
Answer: International
MCQ23: The idea that the state or the government is a product of an agreement between the governor and the governed best qualifies the _________ contract idea
Answer: Social
MCQ24: The force that is associated with law is that which is characterized by legitimacy and ____________
Answer: Authority
MCQ25: Dishonesty, living in sin, etc, are examples of ________________
Answer: immorality
MCQ26: The notion of what is right or wrong is known as ____________
Answer: Morality
MCQ27: The most dominant figure in the gafting of the sociological school is ___________
Answer: Roscoe Pound
MCQ28: The argument that law is not unique but only one method of social control is credited to the ____________school of jurisprudence
Answer: Sociological
MCQ29: _________________ is the founding father of the historical school of jurisprudence
Answer: Frederich Savigny
MCQ30: The assertion that law is not just an abstract set of rules but an integral part of society ws espoused by the ______________ school of jurisprudence
Answer: Historical
MCQ31: According to Jeremy Bentham, a critical understanding of law that investigation s are carried into _____________ areas of law
Answer: Eight
MCQ32: The school of jurisprudence which asserts that natural law was unscientific, and dominated by untested and untestable philosophical speculation is the ______________________ school.
Answer: Positivist
MCQ33: The postulation that what is natural is that which is common to all mankind was made by _____________
Answer: Aristotle
MCQ34: The major postulation of natural law theorists is that the good society is one in which laws____________ are harmonized with natural laws.
Answer: Man-made
MCQ35: In law, man-made laws are called ___________ laws
Answer: Positive
MCQ36: Another name for natural laws is ______________________
Answer: Higher or divine laws
MCQ37: Marxist theorist argue that the manner of ownership of production divides society into two antagonistic classes called the capitalists and the _______________
Answer: Working class
MCQ38: Another argument about law that what is needed in society is not law but education is credited to _________________
Answer: Plato
MCQ39: The title of Hobbes’s book published in 1961 is ______________
Answer: The Leviathan
MCQ40: According to ____________________ society without law is a very inevitable recipe for disaster
Answer: Thomas Hobbes
MCQ41: The assertion that man by nature is evil and the law is needed to keep his evil inclination in check was made by the _______________school of philosophy in China
Answer: “Legist”
MCQ42: Law performs ______________ functions
Answer: Six
MCQ43: ___________ laws prescribe procedures that must be followed in prosecuting offenders through the criminal justice system
Answer: Procedural
MCQ44: The staff strength of OSL company is
Answer: 3000 guards
MCQ45: The law governing conduct which is not punishable by the state is known as __________________ law
Answer: Civil
MCQ46: In law, those aspects of law dealing with offences that are punishable by the state fall under _____________ law
Answer: criminal
MCQ47: Law is classified into three major divisions: criminal and civil law; public and private law and ____________ and ______________
Answer: Substantive/procedural
MCQ48: The definition of law as a rule laid down for the guidance of an intelligent being by an intelligent being having power over him is credited to _________
Answer: John Austin
MCQ49: The word sociology is a hybrid one coined by the acclaimed father of sociology called_____________
Answer: Auguste Comte
MCQ50: The etymological meaning of sociology is derived from two words of Latin and Greek roots – Socius and _______________
Answer: Logus
FBQ1: The etymological meaning of sociology as the study of society is derived from two words of Latin and Greek origins – Socius and _______________
Answer: Logus
FBQ2: Sociology is a hybrid word coined by the father of sociology, ---------------
Answer: Auguste Comte
FBQ3: The definition of law as a rule laid down for the guidance of an intelligent being by an intelligent being having power over him is credited to _________
Answer: John Austin
FBQ4: Law is classified into three major divisions: criminal and civil law, public and private law and Substantive and _________ law
Answer: procedural
FBQ5: In law, those aspects of law dealing with offences or crimes that are punishable by the state fall under ___________ law.
Answer: criminal
FBQ6: The law governing conduct which is not punishable by the state is known as _______ law
Answer: civil
FBQ7: ________________ law refers to the bodies of law which define offences and prescribes penalties for violation
Answer: Substantive
FBQ8: ___________ laws prescribe procedures that must be followed in prosecuting offenders and other persons through the justice system
Answer: Procedural
FBQ9: Law performs _____ major functions
Answer: Six
FBQ10: The argument that man is by nature evil and the law is needed to keep his evil inclination in check is traceable to the _______ school of philosophy in China
Answer: Legist
FBQ11: According to _________ society without law is a veritable recipe for disaster
Answer: Thomas Hobbes
FBQ12: The view was contained in Hobbes book the _________ published in 1961
Answer: Leviathan
FBQ13: The other aspect of the argument that what is needed in society is not law but education is credited to__________
Answer: Plato
FBQ14: Marxist theorists argue that the manner of ownership of the means of production divides society into two antagonistic classes called the the capitalist (bourgeois) and the ________
Answer: Working class
FBQ15: Another name for natural law is ________________
Answer: Higher law
FBQ16: In law, man-made laws are called ____________
Answer: Positive laws
FBQ17: The major postulation of natural law theorists is that the good society is one in which _____________ laws are harmonized with natural
Answer: Man-made
FBQ18: The assertion that what is natural is that which is common to all mankind was coined by____________
Answer: Aristotle
FBQ19: The school of jurisprudence which argued that natural law was unscientific and dominated by untested and untestable philosophical speculations is known as the ____________________ school
Answer: Positivist school
FBQ20: For Jeremy Bentham, a critical understanding of law requires that investigations are carried into ______________ areas of law.
Answer: eight
FBQ21: The argument that law is not just an abstract set of rules but an integral part of society is espoused by the _________ school of jurisprudence.
Answer: historical
FBQ22: ____________________ is the founding father of the historical school of jurisprudence.
Answer: Frederich Savigny
FBQ23: The argument that law is not unique but only one method of social control among others is linked to ____________school of jurisprudence
Answer: Sociological
FBQ24: The most dominant figure in the grafting of the sociological school is the American legal philosopher and law teacher called________________
Answer: Roscoe Pound
FBQ25: The notion of what is right or wrong is called --------------
Answer: Morality
FBQ26: Dishonesty, living in sin, etc, are examples of __________________
Answer: Immorality
FBQ27: The force that is associated with law is characterized by legitimacy and __________
Answer: Authority
FBQ28: The idea that the state or the government is a product of an agreement between the governor and the governed best describes ___________ contract idea.
Answer: Social
FBQ29: The element of force is absent in _____________ law
Answer: International
FBQ30: The requirements that one must hear the other side in a dispute and must not be a judge in his own case are fundamental principles in _______________ justice
Answer: natural
FBQ31: The ability to what one wishes to do without restraint is called_______________
Answer: freedom
FBQ32: ________________________ freedom is liberty to what one wants to do within the limits of the law imposed by law.
Answer: Legal
FBQ33: If everyone is allowed to do anything in the name of freedom, society may degenerate into the ___________ state of nature where everyone is at war with everyone.
Answer: Hobessian
FBQ34: The assertion, “your right to swing your fist ends where my nose begins” was made by the English law Lord_____________________
Answer: Lord Dennings
FBQ35: The first and most seminal definition of rule of law was propounded by ________________ 1915.
Answer: A.V. Dicey
FBQ36: British colonial rule began in Nigeria in __________________
Answer: 1861
FBQ37: In pre-colonial Nigeria, the basic source of law in the Islamic part of the north was the Holy ________________
Answer: Koran
FBQ38: The personnel of the Shariah legal system in the north were learned _______________scholars
Answer: Islamic
FBQ39: In 1861, King Dosunmu of Lagos signed a document called the __________ thereby formally ceding Lagos to the British.
Answer: Treaty of Cession
FBQ40: The Northern and Southern Protectorates of Nigeria were amalgamated in ___________ into one political unit called Nigeria
Answer: 1914
FBQ41: The major source of law during the colonial period was the ___________ English law
Answer: received
FBQ42: The major sources of procedural laws in the colonial era were the _________________ for criminal procedure.
Answer: Criminal Procedure Act
FBQ43: The 1960 independence constitution of Nigeria marked the beginning of _____________ rule
Answer: self
FBQ44: On the 15th of January ____________ the military struck in a coup d’état
Answer: 1966
FBQ45: One of the first casualties of a any successful military coup in Nigeria is the _________________ which is often suspended.
Answer: constitution
FBQ46: As an academic course of study, the emergence of law is put at __________________ century
Answer: Mid-twentieth
FBQ47: The sociology of law is concerned with the nature of law, its sources and ________________
Answer: functions
FBQ48: The two dominant views of law in sociology are the consensus /functionalist and __________________ perspectives
Answer: Conflict
FBQ49: ________________ theories proceed from a fundamental assumption that consensus exists in society
Answer: Consensus
FBQ50: To functionalists, society is a self-contained system made up fo interconnected and ____________
Answer: Interrelated
CSS132
MCQ1: 'Ethnography', refers simply to a ________________________________ of human societies, usually of those simpler, small-scale societies which anthropologists have mostly studied.
Answer: descriptive account
MCQ2: Ethnography may be said to be the _____________.used by social anthropologists in the study of "man, his culture, and environment".
Answer: raw material
MCQ3: _______________ argued that the first-hand accounts of the culture and social life of human communities, from whatever point of view theyare regarded, are what we call Ethnography
Answer: John Beattie
MCQ 4: On the other hand, Ethnography can be said to refer to the process of collecting data by ___________________________.
Answer: direct enquiries and observations
MCQ 5: Ethnography is regarded as raw material of _________________.
Answer: social anthropology
MCQ 6: _______________ is about the study of "mankind"
Answer: Anthropology
MCQ 7: The two sub-disciplines that Anthropology can be classified are ________________ and ______________________
Answer: Physical Anthropology and Physical Anthropology
MCQ8: __________________ studies human fossils, evolution and variation
Answer: Physical Anthropology
MCQ 9: ________________________ the study of human social life - the origin, history, dynamics of society and its cultures
Answer: Social and Cultural Anthropology
MCQ 10: Anthropology is a branch of _____________, in the sense that its subject matter is centrally a study of relationship between different kinds of peoples.
Answer: Sociology
MCQ 11: ___________________ is a designated blanket term for all theanthropological studies.
Answer: Ethnology
MCQ13: Ethnologists are interested primarily in the past history of peoples or communities ___________________
Answer: without written records
MCQ14: ethnologists classify people in terms of _________________________.
Answer: cultural characteristics
MCQ15: Ethnology in its own right, refers to the ____________________of past andcontemporary cultures
Answer: comparative studies
MCQ16: The history of collection of.__________________. started with the Europeanvoyages of discovery and exploration in the 15th century B.C
Answer: 'items of culture'
MCQ17: The history of collection all started with the documentation of cultural observation by ________________________________ (484-45 B.C).
Answer: Herodotus
MCQ 18: Another person who made contribution to ______________________was Marco Polo (1254-1324),
Answer: ethnographic documentation
MCQ19: The 16th century AD in Europe saw the beginning of interest by Europeans in ___________
Answer: foreign peoples and their exotic cultures
MCQ 20: Philosophers such as __________________ and __________________ used the ethnographic accounts from the voyagers to compare human societies all over the world.
Answer: John Locke and Thomas Hobbes
MCQ 21: By 1930, ethnographic ________________had become an established activity
Answer: fieldwork
MCQ22: The study of Anthropology as a sociological discipline started in Nigeria in the __________________
Answer: 1950s
MCQ23: Anthropology started particularly at ________________________________and ____________________________
Answer: the University of Ibadan and University of Nigeria, Nsukka.
MCQ24: After the _________________of Nigeria in 1914, it was a policy of the British colonial office in London to appoint an anthropologist as colonial officer.
Answer: amalgamation
MCQ25: Nigeria's multi-pluralism promotes the _________________ of ethnocentrism.
Answer: dysfunctional tendency
MCQ26: The belief that one’s own culture is the only true and good one, as wellas the tendency to judge other cultures by ones cultural standards is called __________________
Answer: ethnocentrism
MCQ27: For some reasons, many anthropologists in Africa dropped the use of tribe substituting it with._______________________.
Answer: ethnic group
MCQ28: The term tribe is ___________________ to the extent that it was used to describe societies in the colonised region
Answer: pejorative
MCQ29: ________is the term used in Socio-Cultural Anthropology to describe human social organisation based on small groupings, defined by traditions of common descent
Answer: Tribe
MCQ30: There are four ways by which one can use to identify an______________
Answer: ethnic group
MCQ31: The first way is ______________
Answer: culture
MCQ32: The second way is ______________.
Answer: language
MCQ33: The third way is ______________________ _.
Answer: common tradition
MCQ34: The fourth way is _____________________
Answer: political organisation and territory
MCQ35: One of the major factors that distinguish ethnic groups from one another is this ________________, expressed in myth of common origin and kinship blood ties
Answer: cultural symbolism
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) 34: ______________ is a concept which describes an ethnic group as people sharing the same historical experience, having the same cultural, experience, speaking the same language, and sharing the same belief about the future together
Answer: Cultural Symbolism
MCQ37: The term _________________, emanates from the concept of culture.
Answer: culture area
MCQ38: The term _________________, emanates from the concept of culture.
Answer: culture area
Multiple Choice Questions (MCQs) 37: _____________describes what people in a society would do or say in a defined situation if they conformed totally to the ideals accepted in the culture.
Answer: Ideal pattern
MCQ39: _____________describes what people in a society would do or say in a defined situation if they conformed totally to the ideals accepted in the culture.
Answer: Ideal pattern
MCQ40: A culture consists of two _____________
Answer: major patterns
MCQ41: The first is _____________________________
Answer: the ideal culture
MCQ42: The second is __________________________.
Answer: the real culture
MCQ43: one of the widely quoted definitions of culture is the one provided by _______________
Answer: Goodenough (1957)
MCQ44: The definition states that "a society's culture consists of whatever it is one has toknow or believe, in order to operate in a manner acceptable to its members, and do so in any ________________ that they accept for anyone of themselves".
Answer: role
MCQ45: __________________meticulously examined over a hundred (100) definitions but found none wholly acceptable
Answer: Kluckholn and Kroeber
MCQ46: A people's mode of dress, language, technology, traditions and belief system are all products of _________________.
Answer: ecological adaptation
MCQ47: This theoretical approach is generally referred to as ____________________
Answer: environmental determinism.
MCQ48: Culture is influenced and shaped by ______________________
Answer: environmental conditions.
MCQ49: It is common to listen to people referring to or calling a person a ______________
Answer: "bushman"
MCQ50: The name implies that the person is ___________________
Answer: uncultured
FBQ1: 'Ethnography', refers simply to a ________________________________ of human societies, usually of those simpler, small-scale societies which anthropologists have mostly studied.
Answer: descriptive account
FBQ2: Ethnography may be said to be the _____________. used by social anthropologists in the study of "man, his culture, and environment".
Answer: raw material
FBQ3: _______________ argued that the first-hand accounts of the culture and social life of human communities, from whatever point of view theyare regarded, are what we call Ethnography
Answer: John Beattie
FBQ4: On the other hand, Ethnography can be said to refer to the process of collecting data by direct enquiries and ……………
Answer: observations
FBQ5: Ethnography is regarded as raw material of _________________.
Answer: social anthropology
FBQ6: _______________ is about the study of "mankind"
Answer: Anthropology
FBQ7: The two subdisciplines that Anthropology can be classified are Physical Anthropology and ______________________ Anthropology
Answer: social
FBQ8: __________________ studies human fossils, evolution and variation
Answer: Physical Anthropology
FBQ9: …………… and Cultural Anthropology the study of human social life - the origin, history, dynamics of society and its cultures
Answer: Social
FBQ10: Anthropology is a branch of _____________, in the sense that its subject matter is centrally a study of relationship between different kinds of peoples.
Answer: Sociology
FBQ11: ___________________ is a designated blanket term for all theanthropological studies.
Answer: Ethnology
Fill in the Blank (FBQs) 11: The distinction between Ethnography and Ethnology is similar to that existing between Geography and __________________
Answer: Geology
FBQ13: Ethnologists are interested primarily in the past history of peoples or communities without ___________________
Answer: written records
FBQ14: ethnologists classify people in terms of _________________________ characteristics
Answer: cultural
FBQ15: Ethnology in its own right, refers to the ____________________of past andcontemporary cultures
Answer: comparative studies
FBQ16: The history of collection of.__________________. started with the Europeanvoyages of discovery and exploration in the 15th century B.C
Answer: items of culture
FBQ17: The history of collection all started with the documentation of cultural observation by ________________________________ (484-45 B.C).
Answer: Herodotus
FBQ18: Another person who made contribution to ______________________was Marco Polo (1254-1324),
Answer: ethnographic documentation
FBQ19: The 16th century AD in Europe saw the beginning of interest by Europeans in foreign peoples and their exotic cultures.TRUE OR FALSE
Answer: TRUE
FBQ20: Philosophers such as John Locke and __________________ used the ethnographic accounts from the voyagers to compare human societies all over the world.
Answer: Thomas Hobbes
FBQ21: By 1930, ethnographic ________________had become an established activity
Answer: fieldwork
FBQ22: The study of Anthropology as a sociological discipline started in Nigeria in the __________________
Answer: 1950s
FBQ23: Anthropology started particularly at the University of Ibadan and and ____________________________
Answer: University of Nigeria, Nsukka
FBQ24: After the _________________of Nigeria in 1914, it was a policy of the British colonial office in London to appoint an anthropologist as colonial officer.
Answer: amalgamation
FBQ25: Nigeria's multi-pluralism promotes the _________________ of ethnocentrism.
Answer: dysfunctional tendency
FBQ26: The belief that one’s own culture is the only true and good one, as wellas the tendency to judge other cultures by ones cultural standards is called __________________
Answer: ethnocentrism
FBQ27: For some reasons, many anthropologists in Africa dropped the use of tribe substituting it with._______________________.
Answer: ethnic group
FBQ28: The term tribe is ___________________ to the extent that it was used to describe societies in the colonised region
Answer: pejorative
FBQ29: ________is the term used in Socio-Cultural Anthropology to describe human social organisation based on small groupings, defined by traditions of common descent
Answer: Tribe
FBQ30: There are four ways by which one can use to identify an______________
Answer: ethnic group
FBQ31: The first way is ______________
Answer: culture
FBQ32: The second way is ______________.
Answer: language
FBQ33: The third way is ______________________ _.
Answer: common tradition
FBQ34: The fourth way is political organisation and _____________________
Answer: territory
FBQ35: One of the major factors that distinguish ethnic groups from one another is this ________________, expressed in myth of common origin and kinship blood ties
Answer: cultural symbolism
Fill in the Blank (FBQs) 35: ______________ is a concept which describes an ethnic group as people sharing the same historical experience, having the same cultural, experience, speaking the same language, and sharing the same belief about the future together
Answer: Cultural Symbolism
FBQ37: The term _________________, emanates from the concept of culture.
Answer: culture area
FBQ38: This concept simply denotes a _________________occupied by ethnic/tribal groups or peoples whose life styles exhibit a significant degree of similarity with others, as well as a significant degree of dissimilarity with the cultures of others.
Answer: geographical area
FBQ39: _____________describes what people in a society would do or say in a defined situation if they conformed totally to the ideals accepted in the culture.
Answer: Ideal pattern
FBQ40: A culture consists of two _____________
Answer: major patterns
FBQ41: The first culture pattern is the _____________________________
Answer: ideal culture
FBQ42: The second culture pattern is the __________________________.
Answer: real culture
FBQ43: one of the widely quoted definitions of culture is the one provided by _______________
Answer: Goodenough (1957)
FBQ44: The definition states that "a society's culture consists of whatever it is one has toknow or believe, in order to operate in a manner acceptable to its members, and do so in any ________________ that they accept for anyone of themselves".
Answer: role
FBQ45: __________________meticulously examined over a hundred (100) definitions but found none wholly acceptable
Answer: Kluckholn and Kroeber
FBQ46: A people's mode of dress, language, technology, traditions and belief system are all products of _________________.
Answer: ecological adaptation
FBQ47: This theoretical approach is generally referred to as ____________________
Answer: environmental determinism
FBQ48: Culture is influenced and shaped by ______________________
Answer: environmental conditions
FBQ49: It is common to listen to people referring to an uncultured person as a ______________
Answer: bushman
FBQ50: The name ‘bushman’ implies that a person is ___________________
Answer: Uncultured
CSS134
MCQ1: ________________may he defined as the studs of crime, its causes, how it is explained in a scientific way and how people react to it.
Answer: Criminology
MCQ2: ____________is "an offence for which one may be punished by law”.
Answer: crime
MCQ3: _______________is freedom or protection from danger or worry, thus, anything which threatens the peace, law and order of a country, is threatening its security.
Answer: Security
MCQ4: Anything that threatens the _______ or _______ of an individual threatens security.
Answer: life or well-being
MCQ5: The crime of the people who attack and rob ships at sea is __________ MCQ6: __________is the safety of a country which occupies an area of the earth's surface,
Answer: National Security
MCQ7: __________is the adequacy of food supplies for a country, a state, a city, etc
Answer: Food security
MCQ8: ___________is "the scientific study of the earth's surface, physical features, divisions, climate, products, population, etc."
Answer: Geography
MCQ9: ______________is located in West Africa, roughly between Latitude 4°N and14°N and Longitudes 4°E and I5°E.
Answer: Nigeria
MCQ10: The country's most southerly point is near Brass in the Niger Delta, which is roughly north of the______________
Answer: Equator
MCQ11: The country's ____________ boundary is approximately at 14°N.
Answer: northern
MCQ12: Nigeria’s _____________boundary runs roughly along Longitudes 3°E.
Answer: westerly
MCQ13: Nigeria’s easterly boundary runs from a point to the south west of the ___________ of the Cross River to northwards almost to Longitude 15°E, South of Lake Chad
Answer: estuary
MCQ14: Nigeria has a total land area of ______________square kilometres.
Answer: 923,768
MCQ15: By land area, Nigeria is four times the area of _______________
Answer: Ghana
MCQ16: By land area, Nigeria is about ____________________the area of Sierra Leone..
Answer: thirteen times
MCQ17: By land area, Nigeria is four times the area of the _______________
Answer: United Kingdom
MCQ18: Nigeria covers about ________________of the productive area of West Africa
Answer: one seventh
MCQ19: Nigeria has about _________kilometres of land boundaries to monitor and defend.
Answer: 2,790
MCQ20: The Nigerian Customs Service has the responsibility of combating _____________ and _________________in goods across Nigeria's borders.
Answer: smuggling and illegal trafficking
MCQ21: The responsibility of defending Nigeria's _________is the duty of the Nigerian Army
Answer: land borders
MCQ22: Nigeria has a coastline of about _______________kilometres.
Answer: 860
MCQ23: Before May 1967 Nigeria consisted of four _____________.
Answer: regions
MCQ24: In May 1967, the country was split into _________________.
Answer: twelve States
MCQ25: In 1976 Nigeria was further broken down into ______________and ____________.
Answer: nineteen States and a new Federal Capital Territory
MCQ26: Today, there are. ___________________ and _____________________in Nigeria
Answer: thirty-six plus the Federal Capital Territory (FCT)
MCQ27: Today, Nigeria has __________________ Local Government Areas.
Answer: seven hundred and seventy four
MCQ28: For the fact that Maiduguri is located on land which is very flat, we say thatMaiduguri is located on a _____________.
Answer: flat plain
MCQ29: Although there are many potential dam sites around plateau edges, the two that have been developed are ________________ and _________________
Answer: Kwol and Kurro Falls
MCQ30: The climate of an area is the average ______________conditions in that area..
Answer: weather
MCQ31: ______________conditions are the conditions of the atmosphere at a particularpoint in time.
Answer: Weather
MCQ32: These conditions include sunshine, temperature, humidity, air masses, atmospheric pressure, winds and ______________.
Answer: rainfall
MCQ33: One of the most salient features of the climate of Nigeria is that the year is divided into __________
Answer: Two main seasons
MCQ34: These two are seasons are ___________________ and _____________________
Answer: the rainy season and dry season
MCQ35: The first season lasts from_______________ to _________________________
Answer: April to October
MCQ36: The second season lasts from .______________ to _________________
Answer: November to March
MCQ37: One other important aspect of the climate of Nigeria is the occurrence of destructive ____________________characterised by heavy torrential rainfall and strong winds.
Answer: thunderstorms
MCQ38: The two main types of vegetation in Nigeria are_____________ and ___________.
Answer: forest and savannah
MCQ39: _________is a type of vegetation which is dominated by woody plants called trees.
Answer: Forest
MCQ40: _____________is a type of vegetation in which the ground is covered by grasses among which there may be some trees.
Answer: Savannah
MCQ41: Such trees may grow close together, forming a _____________
Answer: woodland
MCQ42: They may be far apart, forming a __________________________.
Answer: parkland
MCQ43: In Nigeria, these two types of vegetation occur as ________________.
Answer: east-west belts.
MCQ44: The ____________, covering about 20% of the country is to be found in the wetter south, extending inland from the coast.
Answer: forest belt
MCQ45: The mean annual rainfall is over _____________
Answer: 1300mm
MCQ46: The rainy season is at least ______________ long.
Answer: eight months
MCQ47: The __________________ covers the rest of the country where the mean annualrainfall is less than 1300inm and the rainy season is less than eight months long
Answer: . Savannah belt
MCQ48: _______________is a type of vegetation that covers a zone which is about thirty to fifty kilometres wide along the coast.
Answer: Mangrove Forest
MCQ49: _____________has a swamp whose water is fresh from which fresh water plants are to be found e.g. raffia palm
Answer: Fresh Water Swamp Forest
MCQ50: _____________is a vegetation whose zone extends across the country from the Benin border to the Oban Hills. It has - Except in the area of the Niger valley where it is High temperatures, high rainfall and a long rainy season, combine to favour plant growth throughout the year.
Answer: Tropical Rain Forest
FBQ1: ________________may he defined as the studs of crime, its causes, how it is explained in a scientific way and how people react to it.
Answer: Criminology
FBQ2: ____________is "an offence for which one may be punished by law”.
Answer: Crime
FBQ3: _______________is freedom or protection from danger or worry,, thus, anything which threatens the peace, law and order of a country, is threatening its security.
Answer: Security
FBQ4: Anything that threatens the _______ or _______ of an individual threatens security.
Answer: life or well-being
FBQ5: The crime of the people who attack and rob ships at sea is __________
Answer: Piracy
FBQ6: __________is the safety of a country which occupies an area of the earth's surface,
Answer: National Security
FBQ7: __________is the adequacy of food supplies for a country, a state, a city, etc
Answer: Food security
FBQ8: ___________is "the scientific study of the earth's surface, physical features, divisions, climate, products, population, etc."
Answer: Geography
FBQ9: ______________is located in West Africa, roughly between Latitude 4°N and 14°N and Longitudes 4°E and I5°E.
Answer: Nigeria
FBQ10: The country's most southerly point is near Brass in the Niger Delta, which is roughly north of the______________
Answer: Equator
FBQ11: The country's ____________ boundary is approximately at 14°N.
Answer: Northern
FBQ12: Nigeria’s _____________boundary runs roughly along Longitudes 3°E.
Answer: Westerly
FBQ13: Nigeria’s easterly boundary runs from a point to the south west of the ___________ of the Cross River to northwards almost to Longitude 15°E, South of Lake Chad
Answer: Estuary
FBQ14: Nigeria has a total land area of ______________square kilometres.
Answer: 923,768
FBQ15: By land area, Nigeria is four times the area of _______________
Answer: Ghana
FBQ16: By land area, Nigeria is about ____________________the area of Sierra Leone..
Answer: thirteen times
FBQ17: By land area, Nigeria is four times the area of the _______________
Answer: United Kingdom
FBQ18: Nigeria covers about ________________of the productive area of West Africa
Answer: one seventh
FBQ19: Nigeria has about _________kilometres of land boundaries to monitor and defend.
Answer: 2,790
FBQ20: The Nigerian Customs Service has the responsibility of combating smuggling and _________________in goods across Nigeria's borders.
Answer: illegal trafficking
FBQ21: The responsibility of defending Nigeria's _________is the duty of the Nigerian Army
Answer: land borders
FBQ22: Nigeria has a coastline of about _______________kilometres.
Answer: 860
FBQ23: Before May 1967 Nigeria consisted of four _____________.
Answer: Regions
FBQ24: In May 1967, the country was split into _________________.
Answer: twelve States
FBQ25: In 1976 Nigeria was further broken down into nineteen States and ____________.
Answer: a new Federal Capital Territory
FBQ26: Today, there are. thirty-six and _____________________in Nigeria
Answer: the Federal Capital Territory (FCT)
FBQ27: Today, Nigeria has __________________ Local Government Areas.
Answer: seven hundred and seventy four
FBQ28: For the fact that Maiduguri is located on land which is very flat, we say thatMaiduguri is located on a _____________.
Answer: flat plain
FBQ29: Although there are many potential dam sites around plateau edges, the two that have been developed are ________________ and _________________
Answer: Kwol and Kurro Falls
FBQ30: The climate of an area is the average ______________conditions in that area.
Answer: Weather
FBQ31: ______________conditions are the conditions of the atmosphere at a particularpoint in time.
Answer: Weather
FBQ32: These conditions include sunshine, temperature, humidity, air masses, atmospheric pressure, winds and ______________.
Answer: Rainfall
FBQ33: One of the most salient features of the climate of Nigeria is that the year is divided into __________
Answer: Two main seasons
FBQ34: These two are seasons are ___________________ and _____________________
Answer: the rainy season and dry season
FBQ35: The first season lasts from ________________ to _________________________
Answer: April to October
FBQ36: The second season lasts from .______________ to _________________
Answer: November to March
FBQ37: One other important aspect of the climate of Nigeria is the occurrence of destructive ____________________characterised by heavy torrential rainfall and strong winds.
Answer: Thunderstorms
FBQ38: The two main types of vegetation in Nigeria are_____________ and ___________.
Answer: forest and savannah
FBQ39: _________is a type of vegetation which is dominated by woody plants called trees.
Answer: Forest
FBQ40: _____________is a type of vegetation in which the ground is covered by grasses among which there may be some trees.
Answer: Savannah
FBQ41: Such trees may grow close together, forming a _____________
Answer: Woodland
FBQ42: They may be far apart, forming a __________________________.
Answer: Parkland
FBQ43: In Nigeria, these two types of vegetation occur as ________________ .
Answer: east-west belts
FBQ44: The ____________, covering about 20% of the country is to be found in the wetter south, extending inland from the coast.
Answer: forest belt
FBQ45: The mean annual rainfall is over _____________
Answer: 1300mm
FBQ46: The rainy season is at least ______________ long.
Answer: eight months
FBQ47: The __________________ covers the rest of the country where the mean annual rainfall is less than 1300inm and the rainy season is less than eight months long
Answer: Savannah belt
FBQ48: _______________is a type of vegetation that covers a zone which is about thirty to fifty kilometres wide along the coast.
Answer: Mangrove Forest
FBQ49: _____________has a swamp whose water is fresh from which fresh water plants are to be found e.g. raffia palm
Answer: Fresh Water Swamp Forest
FBQ50: _____________is a vegetation whose zone extends across the country from the Benin border to the Oban Hills. It has - Except in the area of the Niger valley where it is High temperatures, high rainfall and a long rainy season, combine to favour plant growth throughout the year.
Answer: Tropical Rain Forest
POL126
FBQ1: A human population occupying a defined territory and having government and sovereignty is referred to as ___________
Answer: State
FBQ2: The main thrust of the __________theory of the state is that the leaders are ordained by God
Answer: Divine
FBQ3: _______ conceived the state as a “product and manifestation” of irreconcilable class antagonisms in society.
Answer: Karl Marx
FBQ4: The agreement between the citizens and their state for obedience to the law of the state and the protection of life and property of the citizens is called ______
Answer: Social contract theory
FBQ5: The Nigerian state was established in the year ______
Answer: 1914
FBQ6: The gamut of social organisations which interact within the state’s boundaries as well as with the state is referred to as _______
Answer: Society
FBQ7: The legal constraint on the citizens to obey the laws of the state is known as political ______
Answer: Obligation
FBQ8: A deliberate resistance against government policies and actions is called ______
Answer: Civil disobedience
FBQ9: The primary imperative of the state is the maintenance of public peace and _________
Answer: Order
FBQ10: All persons whom a state is obligated to protect is conceived by international law as ____
Answer: Citizen
FBQ11: The non – constraining of one’s action is otherwise known as ______
Answer: Liberty
FBQ12: Allegiance is one of the fundamental duties and responsibilities expected from _____
Answer: Citizenship
FBQ13: The institution of governance saddled with the responsibility of law making is known as the ____
Answer: Legislature
FBQ14: The last arbiter for the resolution of disputes between the state and citizens, and between different tiers of government is the ______
Answer: Judiciary
FBQ15: The link between the executive and society in the implementation of public policies and programmes is called the _____
Answer: Civil Society
FBQ16: The ___________ apparatus responsible for public security in Nigeria is referred to as the security apparatus
Answer: Coercive
FBQ17: The political institution responsible for the aggregation and articulation of the interests of the citizens is ________
Answer: Political parties
FBQ18: The distribution of fiscal powers amongst the constituent parts of a political system is known as _______
Answer: Revenue Allocation
FBQ19: The love of one’s country and willingness to defend it is called ________
Answer: Patriotism
FBQ20: _________ is mostly associated with the amalgamation of Northern and Southern Protectorates into the present Nigerian state.
Answer: Sir Frederick Lugard
FBQ21: The absolute and perpetual power of the state over all person, throughout its territory is known as ____________
Answer: Sovereignty
FBQ22: The theory that traces the origin of the state through the eldest male parent is called _________
Answer: Patriarchal theory
FBQ23: The three major ethnic groups in Nigeria are _____, Igbo and Yoruba
Answer: Hausa
FBQ24: Nigeria became a sovereign state in the year ________
Answer: 1960
FBQ25: The first military coup d’etat in Nigeria was led by _____
Answer: Chukwuma Kaduna Nzeogu
FBQ26: The duties that require individual members of a state to refrain from performing bad acts is known as ______
Answer: Negative duties
FBQ27: The quality attributable to human action by reason of its conformity or lack of conformity to standards or rules according to which it should be regulated is called ________
Answer: Morality
FBQ28: The secondary imperatives of the state is concerned with ________
Answer: Socio – economic development
FBQ29: The principles of natural _______ implies that citizen’s political rights should be respected and treated as sacred and sacrosanct.
Answer: Justice
FBQ30: Non – violence is one of the salient features of _________
Answer: Civil disobedience
FBQ31: The absence of restraint or certain impediments imposed by others to the exercise of certain interests is known as ___________
Answer: Freedom
FBQ32: The citizenship acquired because parents or any of the grandparents belongs to a community indigenous to Nigeria is by ___________
Answer: Birth
FBQ33: A citizen is entitled to Equal access to _______
Answer: Rights
FBQ34: The presumed rights of states in Nigeria to reserve their public services exclusively for their indigenes is called _____
Answer: Statism
FBQ35: Citizens who are not members or natives of a community in Nigeria is referred to as ______
Answer: Non – indigenes
FBQ36: _____________means love for one’s country?
Answer: Patriotism
FBQ37: The distribution of fiscal powers between the central and state governments is known as_______?
Answer: Revenue Allocation
FBQ38: According to the United Nations Organisations, when a constituted government in a state no longer performs the core functions required of its people, it is referred to as_____________
Answer: Failed State
FBQ39: The capacity of a state to control all the human and material resources within, under and above its territory is known as________
Answer: Sovereignty
FBQ40: The service delivery scheme in Nigeria is known as___________?
Answer: SERVICOM
FBQ41: A government of laws is by definition___________?
Answer: A limited government
FBQ42: A set of rules, conventions and norms ruling the government process is called___________?
Answer: Regime
FBQ43: ___________refers to the protection against interference, torture, kidnapping and arbitrary imprisonment, etc.
Answer: Personal rights
FBQ44: The famous Indian, _________ is known as a non–violent political theorists
Answer: Gandhi
FBQ45: The concept that assumes that nothing is desired for its own sake except pleasure is called_______________
Answer: Utilitarianism
FBQ46: The form of relationship between a citizen and the state in which the citizen owes loyalty and commitment to the state is known as___________?
Answer: Allegiance
FBQ47: A social contract valid for all in a political system basedon the set of rights and obligations which all are entitled to within a given state is called_____?
Answer: Citizenship
FBQ48: The legal constraint on the citizen to obey the laws of the state is referred to as___________?
Answer: Political Obligation
FBQ49: An important independent institution which contributes to the effectiveness and stability of the democratic government is called_______
Answer: Civil Organisation
FBQ50: _____________of a citizen is evidenced in the adherence to customs and traditions that have definite symbolic value that greatly strengthen national unity and pride.
Answer: Patriotism
MCQ1: _______ is not a feature of the state
Answer: Democracy
MCQ2: The exponents of the social contract theory of the state excludes
Answer: Karl Marx
MCQ3: All except ________ are theories of the origin of the state
Answer: The Power theory
MCQ4: The implications of Rousseau’s social contract theory include all but one of the following
Answer: Man is selfish by nature
MCQ5: _____ is not among the major defects of the social contract theory
Answer: It serves as a reminder of the human responses which the state can serve
MCQ6: One of the following is not among the elements of Marxist theory of the state
Answer: The state is neutral
MCQ7: The amalgamation of Nigerian took place under Lord Lugard in ________
Answer: 1914
MCQ8: The political culture of democracy is reflected in all the below except _______
Answer: Violation of human rights
MCQ9: One of the following is not a feature of civil disobedience
Answer: Direct action
MCQ10: The absence of coercion and restraint imposed by others is referred to as
Answer: Liberty
MCQ11: All except one of the following are not a types of liberty
Answer: Negative liberty
MCQ12: All persons whom a state is obligated to protect are called _______
Answer: Citizens
MCQ13: _______ is not among the means of acquiring citizenship
Answer: War
MCQ14: Duties and responsibilities of citizenship exclude _______
Answer: Crime
MCQ15: The tendency to exclude strangers from the public service of a state is called ______
Answer: Statism
MCQ16: In Nigeria, a member of the native community resident in the area of authority is known as _______
Answer: An indigene
MCQ17: The socially constructed roles, responsibilities, expectations, norms, and stereotypes accorded to men and women in relation to the question of citizenship is referred to as __________
Answer: Gendered citizenship
MCQ18: The claims which a citizen can make both on the state and the other citizens is known as _______
Answer: Rights
MCQ19: The fundamental rights of the citizen is otherwise described as ________
Answer: Inalienable right
MCQ20: _______ is not among the categories of rights
Answer: Suicide rights
MCQ21: The assumption that nothing is desired for its own sake except pleasure is otherwise known as ________
Answer: Utilitarianism
MCQ22: A set of rules, conventions and norms ruling the governmental process is called _____
Answer: Regime
MCQ23: One of the regimes guarantee fundamental rights of citizens
Answer: Democratic political system
MCQ24: The right to command and be obeyed is called _______
Answer: Authority
MCQ25: The system of values, policies and institutions by which society manages economic political and social affairs through interactions within and among the state, civil society and private sector is called _________
Answer: Governance
MCQ26: The government performs the following functions except ________
Answer: Impediment of freedom
MCQ27: The major institutions of governance exclude _______
Answer: Press
MCQ28: The link between the executive and society in the implementation of public policies and programmes is ________
Answer: Civil service
MCQ29: _______ is not one of the security architecture responsible for public security in Nigeria
Answer: National Road Transport Workers
MCQ30: The challenges of political integration and development in Nigeria as identified by Isagwu (1985) do not include ______
Answer: The challenge of paradox
MCQ31: The problems of patriotism and loyalty in Nigeria does not include _____
Answer: Peace
MCQ32: The state of nature is mostly associated with ________
Answer: Hobbes
MCQ33: ______ is an expression of the general will
Answer: Law
MCQ34: Every citizen of the state is entitled to _______
Answer: Rights and Duties
MCQ35: The political system in which the constituent parts are equal and coordinate is called _________
Answer: Federation
MCQ36: The series of challenges of political development identified by Isiagwu excludes_____________?
Answer: The challenge of production
MCQ37: The institutions of governance include all except____________?
Answer: The Pressure Groups
MCQ38: _________is the link between the executive and society in the implementation of public policies and programmes.
Answer: The Civil Service
MCQ39: SERVICOM was inaugurated by the Federal Government of Nigeria in the year_________?
Answer: 2005
MCQ40: ________is not among the coercive apparatus of public security in Nigeria?
Answer: Nigerian Labour congress
MCQ41: ________has the responsibility of aggregating and articulating the interests of the citizens?
Answer: Political Parties
MCQ42: _________does not fall into the government responsibilities?
Answer: Escalation of injustice
MCQ43: The right to command and be obeyed is known as____________?
Answer: Authority
MCQ44: The categories of the International Bill of Human Rights exclude____________?
Answer: Diarchical political system
MCQ45: With the exception of ________ the following are among the categories of rights?
Answer: Conflict rights
MCQ46: Literature has it that the interest of the Europeans in Africa and indeed Nigeria was and still is economic.
Answer: Economic
MCQ47: The concerns which border on the ambivalence of constitutional provisions exclude_________?
Answer: Political participation
MCQ48: The duty of a citizen to pay taxes and royalties is known as_________?
Answer: Tax obligation
MCQ49: _________is not among the Human Rights and Fundamental Freedoms as contained in Chapter 4 of 1999 constitution of the Federal Republic of Nigeria.
Answer: Right to kill
MCQ50: Duties that require individual members of a state to refrain from performing bad acts are called_________?
Answer: Negative duties
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